LECTURE 1 a. It causes elevated factor VIII levels
b. It coats the endothelial lining of arteries
1. Mucocutaneous hemorrhage is typical of: c. It substitutes for plasminogen or TPA in the
a. Acquired hemorrhagic disorder forming clot
b. Localized hemorrhagic disorder d. It contribute additional phospholipid in vivo for
c. Defects in primary hemostasis formation of the Xase complex
d. Defects in fibrinolysis 10. What acquired thrombosis risk factor is assessed in
2. Which of the following assays is used to distinguish the hemostasis laboratory?
vitamin k deficiency from the liver disease? a. Smoking
a. PT b. Immobilization
b. Protein C assay c. Body mass index
c. Factor V assay d. Lupus anticoagulant
d. Factor VII assay 11. What is not a fibrinolysis control protein?
3. What is the typical treatment for vitamin k deficiency a. Thrombin-activatable fibrinolysis inhibitor
when the patient is bleeding? b. Plasminogen activator inhibitor-1
a. Vitamin k and PCC c. A2-antiplasmin
b. Vitamin K and plasma d. D-dimer
c. Vitamin K and platelet concentrate 12. If a patient has anatomic soft tissue bleeding and
d. Vitamin K and Factor XIII concentrate poor wound healing, but the PT, PTT, thrombin time,
4. What is the most important application of the platelet count, and platelet functional assay results
quantitative D-dimer test? are normal, what factor deficiency is indicated?
a. Diagnose primary fibrinolysis a. Fibrinogen
b. Diagnose liver and renal disease b. Prothrombin
c. Rule out deep venous thrombosis c. Factor XII
d. Diagnose acute myocardial infarction d. Factor XIII
5. What therapeutic agent may occasionally cause DIC? 13. In most LA profiles, what screening test is primary
a. Factor VIII because it detects LA with the fewest interferences?
b. Factor VIIa a. Low-phospholipid PTT
c. Antithrombin concentrate b. DRVVT
d. Activated prothrombin complex concentrate c. KCT
6. What is thrombophilia? d. PT
a. Predisposition to thrombosis secondary to a 14. What factor deficiency has the speediest effect on the
congenital or acquired disorder prothrombin time?
b. Inappropriate triggering of the plasma a. Prothrombin deficiency
coagulation system b. Factor VII deficiency
c. A condition in which clots form uncontrollably c. Factor VIII deficiency
d. Inadequate fibrinolysis d. Factor IX deficiency
7. What is the most common heritable thrombosis risk 15. What therapy may be used for a hemophilic boy who
factor in Caucasians? is bleeding and who has a high titer of factor VII
a. APC resistance (factor V leiden mutation) inhibitor?
b. Prothrombin G20210A mutation a. rFVIIa
c. Antithrombin deficiency b. Plasma
d. Protein S deficiency c. Cryoprecipitate
8. Which of the following conditions causes a prolonged d. Factor VIII concentrate
thrombin time? 16. A patient with venous thrombosis is tested for protein
a. Antithrombin deficiency S deficiency. The protein S activity, antigen, and free
b. Prothrombin deficiency antigen all are less than 65%, and the C4bBP level is
c. Hypofibrinogenemia normal. What type of deficiency is likely?
d. Warfarin therapy a. Type I
9. How does lipoprotein (a) cause thrombosis?
, b. Type II 4. Activates coagulation system leading to intravascular
c. Type III thrombin generation:
d. No deficiency is indicated, because the a. ITP
reference range includes 65%. b. TTP
17. In what subtype of VWD is the RIPA test result c. HUS
positive when ristocetin is used at a concentration of d. DIC
less than 0.5 mg/mL? 5. Thrombi present in DIC is composed of
a. Subtype 2A a. Platelet and fibrinogen
b. Subtype 2B b. Platelet and vWF
c. Subtype 2N c. Platelet and all coagulation factors
d. Type 3 d. Platelet only
18. An elevated level of what fibrinolytic system assay is 6. Thrombocytopenia caused by mutation of GATAA 1
associated with arterial thrombotic risk? gene
a. PAI-1 a. Fanconi anemia
b. TPA b. May-hegglin anomaly
c. Factor VIIa c. Tar syndrome
d. Factor XII d. Wiskott-aldrich syndrome
19. What is the most prevalent form of VWD? 7. Mutation of RBM8A gene cause
a. Type 1 a. Fanconi anemia
b. Type 2A b. May-hegglin anomaly
c. Type 2B c. Tar syndrome
d. Type 3 d. Wiskott-aldrich syndrome
20. What is the most common acquired bleeding 8. Develops when a mother lacks platelet specific
disorder? antigen
a. Vitamin k deficiency a. Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia
b. Liver disease b. Neaonatal autoimmune thrombocytopenia
c. ACOTS c. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
d. VWD d. Incident thrombocytopenia of pregnancy
9. Characterized by a triad of microangiopathic anemia,
LECTURE 2 thrombocytopenia and neurologic disorder:
a. ITP
1. An immunologic platelet disorder common in children
b. TTP
after a viral disease
a. Acute ITP c. HUS
d. DIC
b. Chronic ITP
10. Small pinpoint hemorrhages about 1mm in diameter
c. Neonatal isoimmune thrombocytopenia
a. Pupura
d. Secondary autoimmune thrombocytopenia
b. Ecchymoses
2. Characterized by severe neonatal thrombocytopenia
c. Petechiae
and congenital absence or extreme hypoplasia
d. Bruising
a. Fanconi anemia
11. Abnormal distribution of platelets can be caused by
b. May-hegglin anomaly
splenic sequestration.
c. Tar syndrome
a. True
d. Wiskott-aldrich syndrome
b. False
3. Thrombocytopenia is related to abnormal cells
12. Thrombopoietin stimulates megakaryocytes
crowding out or replacing normal marrow elements.
maturation and platelet production
a. Generalized bone marrow suppression
a. True
b. Selective suppression of megakaryocytes
b. False
c. Myelophthisic process
d. Ineffective thrombopoiesis
, 13. Platelet in PNH possess a membrane defect that d. Actin and calcium chloride
results in abnormal sensitivity to complement and 3. Which test would be abnormal in a patient with
various antibodies. stuart-prower factor deficiency?
a. True a. PT
b. False b. aPTT
14. Chronic ITP may be treated with splenectomy to c. PT and aPTT
remove a major site of platelet storage. d. Thrombin time
a. True 4. Which clotting factor is not measured by PT and
b. False APTT tests?
15. This condition is characterized by failure to achieve a. Factor VIII
adequate increments in the circulating platelet after b. Factor IX
transfusion. c. Factor V
a. Post transfusion purpura d. Factor XIII
b. Neonatal isoimmune thrombocytopenia 5. Which coagulation test would be abnormal in a
c. Patients refractory to platelet transfusion vitamin K-deficient patient?
d. Primary autoimmune thrombocytopenia a. PT
16. Vomiting and diarrhea are the most common b. PT and aPTT
symptoms preceding the anemia and renal failure c. Fibrinogen level
characteristics of TTP. d. Thrombin time
a. True 6. Which of the following is correct regarding the
b. False international normalized ratio (INR)?
17. An increased platelet count is a common feature of a. It uses international sensitivity ratio (ISR)
rapid blood regeneration. b. Standardizes PT results
a. True c. Standardizes the APTT results
b. False d. Used to monitor heparin therapy
18. Spontaneous bleeding is common when platelet 7. In the APTT procedure the time taken for clot
count is less than 60x109/L. formation is measured after addition of.
a. True a. Tissue thromboplastin
b. False b. Calcium chloride
19. CNS is the most serious site for spontaneous c. Phospholipid
bleeding. d. Activator
a. True 8. Which results are associated with hemophilia A?
b. False a. Prolonged APTT, normal PT
20. Reactive thrombocytosis is characteristic of the b. Prolonged PT and APTT
myeloproliferative disorder. c. Prolonged PT, normal APTT
a. True d. Normal PT and APTT
b. False 9. Normal PT and APTT results in a patient with
poor wound healing may be associated with:
LABORATORY a. Factor VII deficiency
b. Factor VIII deficiency
1. Which ratio of anticoagulant to blood is correct
c. Factor XII deficiency
for coagulation procedure?
d. Factor XIII deficiency
a. 1:4
10. What test is used to monitor heparin therapy
b. 1:5
a. INR
c. 1:9
b. aPTT
d. 1:10
c. PT
2. What reagents are used in the PT test?
d. All are correct
a. Thromboplastin and sodium chloride
11. The lupus anticoagulant is directed against:
b. Thromboplastin and potassium chloride
a. Factor VIII
c. Thromboplastin and calcium
b. It coats the endothelial lining of arteries
1. Mucocutaneous hemorrhage is typical of: c. It substitutes for plasminogen or TPA in the
a. Acquired hemorrhagic disorder forming clot
b. Localized hemorrhagic disorder d. It contribute additional phospholipid in vivo for
c. Defects in primary hemostasis formation of the Xase complex
d. Defects in fibrinolysis 10. What acquired thrombosis risk factor is assessed in
2. Which of the following assays is used to distinguish the hemostasis laboratory?
vitamin k deficiency from the liver disease? a. Smoking
a. PT b. Immobilization
b. Protein C assay c. Body mass index
c. Factor V assay d. Lupus anticoagulant
d. Factor VII assay 11. What is not a fibrinolysis control protein?
3. What is the typical treatment for vitamin k deficiency a. Thrombin-activatable fibrinolysis inhibitor
when the patient is bleeding? b. Plasminogen activator inhibitor-1
a. Vitamin k and PCC c. A2-antiplasmin
b. Vitamin K and plasma d. D-dimer
c. Vitamin K and platelet concentrate 12. If a patient has anatomic soft tissue bleeding and
d. Vitamin K and Factor XIII concentrate poor wound healing, but the PT, PTT, thrombin time,
4. What is the most important application of the platelet count, and platelet functional assay results
quantitative D-dimer test? are normal, what factor deficiency is indicated?
a. Diagnose primary fibrinolysis a. Fibrinogen
b. Diagnose liver and renal disease b. Prothrombin
c. Rule out deep venous thrombosis c. Factor XII
d. Diagnose acute myocardial infarction d. Factor XIII
5. What therapeutic agent may occasionally cause DIC? 13. In most LA profiles, what screening test is primary
a. Factor VIII because it detects LA with the fewest interferences?
b. Factor VIIa a. Low-phospholipid PTT
c. Antithrombin concentrate b. DRVVT
d. Activated prothrombin complex concentrate c. KCT
6. What is thrombophilia? d. PT
a. Predisposition to thrombosis secondary to a 14. What factor deficiency has the speediest effect on the
congenital or acquired disorder prothrombin time?
b. Inappropriate triggering of the plasma a. Prothrombin deficiency
coagulation system b. Factor VII deficiency
c. A condition in which clots form uncontrollably c. Factor VIII deficiency
d. Inadequate fibrinolysis d. Factor IX deficiency
7. What is the most common heritable thrombosis risk 15. What therapy may be used for a hemophilic boy who
factor in Caucasians? is bleeding and who has a high titer of factor VII
a. APC resistance (factor V leiden mutation) inhibitor?
b. Prothrombin G20210A mutation a. rFVIIa
c. Antithrombin deficiency b. Plasma
d. Protein S deficiency c. Cryoprecipitate
8. Which of the following conditions causes a prolonged d. Factor VIII concentrate
thrombin time? 16. A patient with venous thrombosis is tested for protein
a. Antithrombin deficiency S deficiency. The protein S activity, antigen, and free
b. Prothrombin deficiency antigen all are less than 65%, and the C4bBP level is
c. Hypofibrinogenemia normal. What type of deficiency is likely?
d. Warfarin therapy a. Type I
9. How does lipoprotein (a) cause thrombosis?
, b. Type II 4. Activates coagulation system leading to intravascular
c. Type III thrombin generation:
d. No deficiency is indicated, because the a. ITP
reference range includes 65%. b. TTP
17. In what subtype of VWD is the RIPA test result c. HUS
positive when ristocetin is used at a concentration of d. DIC
less than 0.5 mg/mL? 5. Thrombi present in DIC is composed of
a. Subtype 2A a. Platelet and fibrinogen
b. Subtype 2B b. Platelet and vWF
c. Subtype 2N c. Platelet and all coagulation factors
d. Type 3 d. Platelet only
18. An elevated level of what fibrinolytic system assay is 6. Thrombocytopenia caused by mutation of GATAA 1
associated with arterial thrombotic risk? gene
a. PAI-1 a. Fanconi anemia
b. TPA b. May-hegglin anomaly
c. Factor VIIa c. Tar syndrome
d. Factor XII d. Wiskott-aldrich syndrome
19. What is the most prevalent form of VWD? 7. Mutation of RBM8A gene cause
a. Type 1 a. Fanconi anemia
b. Type 2A b. May-hegglin anomaly
c. Type 2B c. Tar syndrome
d. Type 3 d. Wiskott-aldrich syndrome
20. What is the most common acquired bleeding 8. Develops when a mother lacks platelet specific
disorder? antigen
a. Vitamin k deficiency a. Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia
b. Liver disease b. Neaonatal autoimmune thrombocytopenia
c. ACOTS c. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
d. VWD d. Incident thrombocytopenia of pregnancy
9. Characterized by a triad of microangiopathic anemia,
LECTURE 2 thrombocytopenia and neurologic disorder:
a. ITP
1. An immunologic platelet disorder common in children
b. TTP
after a viral disease
a. Acute ITP c. HUS
d. DIC
b. Chronic ITP
10. Small pinpoint hemorrhages about 1mm in diameter
c. Neonatal isoimmune thrombocytopenia
a. Pupura
d. Secondary autoimmune thrombocytopenia
b. Ecchymoses
2. Characterized by severe neonatal thrombocytopenia
c. Petechiae
and congenital absence or extreme hypoplasia
d. Bruising
a. Fanconi anemia
11. Abnormal distribution of platelets can be caused by
b. May-hegglin anomaly
splenic sequestration.
c. Tar syndrome
a. True
d. Wiskott-aldrich syndrome
b. False
3. Thrombocytopenia is related to abnormal cells
12. Thrombopoietin stimulates megakaryocytes
crowding out or replacing normal marrow elements.
maturation and platelet production
a. Generalized bone marrow suppression
a. True
b. Selective suppression of megakaryocytes
b. False
c. Myelophthisic process
d. Ineffective thrombopoiesis
, 13. Platelet in PNH possess a membrane defect that d. Actin and calcium chloride
results in abnormal sensitivity to complement and 3. Which test would be abnormal in a patient with
various antibodies. stuart-prower factor deficiency?
a. True a. PT
b. False b. aPTT
14. Chronic ITP may be treated with splenectomy to c. PT and aPTT
remove a major site of platelet storage. d. Thrombin time
a. True 4. Which clotting factor is not measured by PT and
b. False APTT tests?
15. This condition is characterized by failure to achieve a. Factor VIII
adequate increments in the circulating platelet after b. Factor IX
transfusion. c. Factor V
a. Post transfusion purpura d. Factor XIII
b. Neonatal isoimmune thrombocytopenia 5. Which coagulation test would be abnormal in a
c. Patients refractory to platelet transfusion vitamin K-deficient patient?
d. Primary autoimmune thrombocytopenia a. PT
16. Vomiting and diarrhea are the most common b. PT and aPTT
symptoms preceding the anemia and renal failure c. Fibrinogen level
characteristics of TTP. d. Thrombin time
a. True 6. Which of the following is correct regarding the
b. False international normalized ratio (INR)?
17. An increased platelet count is a common feature of a. It uses international sensitivity ratio (ISR)
rapid blood regeneration. b. Standardizes PT results
a. True c. Standardizes the APTT results
b. False d. Used to monitor heparin therapy
18. Spontaneous bleeding is common when platelet 7. In the APTT procedure the time taken for clot
count is less than 60x109/L. formation is measured after addition of.
a. True a. Tissue thromboplastin
b. False b. Calcium chloride
19. CNS is the most serious site for spontaneous c. Phospholipid
bleeding. d. Activator
a. True 8. Which results are associated with hemophilia A?
b. False a. Prolonged APTT, normal PT
20. Reactive thrombocytosis is characteristic of the b. Prolonged PT and APTT
myeloproliferative disorder. c. Prolonged PT, normal APTT
a. True d. Normal PT and APTT
b. False 9. Normal PT and APTT results in a patient with
poor wound healing may be associated with:
LABORATORY a. Factor VII deficiency
b. Factor VIII deficiency
1. Which ratio of anticoagulant to blood is correct
c. Factor XII deficiency
for coagulation procedure?
d. Factor XIII deficiency
a. 1:4
10. What test is used to monitor heparin therapy
b. 1:5
a. INR
c. 1:9
b. aPTT
d. 1:10
c. PT
2. What reagents are used in the PT test?
d. All are correct
a. Thromboplastin and sodium chloride
11. The lupus anticoagulant is directed against:
b. Thromboplastin and potassium chloride
a. Factor VIII
c. Thromboplastin and calcium
