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NUR 257 Exam 3 | 2026/2027 | Aging and Chronic Illness | Exam Questions with Verified Answers & Detailed Rationales | NGN Grade A | Gerontology & Chronic Disease Management | Nursing School Prep | Downloadable PDF

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INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD — This is the comprehensive Exam 3 preparation guide for NUR 257 - Aging and Chronic Illness (2026/2027), featuring actual exam questions with verified answers and detailed rationales. Designed for nursing students in gerontology and chronic illness courses, this resource consolidates the essential concepts required to master the NUR 257 Exam 3 and achieve a Grade A. The guide is meticulously aligned with Next Generation NCLEX (NGN) standards and current evidence-based geriatric and chronic illness nursing practice. This verified resource provides comprehensive coverage of key NUR 257 Aging and Chronic Illness Exam 3 topics, including: Chronic Neurological Conditions (Parkinson's disease—progressive neurodegenerative disorder, loss of dopaminergic neurons in substantia nigra pars compacta, Lewy bodies (alpha-synuclein aggregates), cardinal motor symptoms (tremor (resting, pill-rolling, 4-6 Hz, worse with stress, improves with voluntary movement, disappears during sleep), rigidity (cogwheel (ratchet-like) or lead pipe (constant resistance throughout range of motion), bradykinesia (slowness of movement, difficulty initiating movement (start hesitation), reduced arm swing, hypomimia (masked facies), micrographia (small handwriting), decreased blink rate, difficulty with fine motor tasks (buttoning, tying shoelaces, using utensils), shuffling gait, en bloc turning, festination (accelerating forward), freezing (sudden inability to move feet, especially when turning, approaching doorways, narrow spaces, crowded areas)), postural instability (impaired balance, retropulsion (pulled backward), increased fall risk, late sign, not responsive to dopaminergic therapy), non-motor symptoms (autonomic dysfunction (orthostatic hypotension (drops in BP upon standing, dizziness, syncope, falls), constipation, urinary urgency/frequency/retention, erectile dysfunction, sialorrhea (drooling), dysphagia, seborrheic dermatitis, hyperhidrosis, thermoregulatory dysfunction), neuropsychiatric (depression (up to 50%, often precedes motor symptoms), anxiety, apathy, fatigue, sleep disorders (REM sleep behavior disorder (RBD) (acting out dreams, often precedes motor symptoms by years), insomnia, restless legs syndrome, excessive daytime somnolence), cognitive impairment (executive dysfunction, visuospatial deficits, attention deficits, memory relatively spared early, Parkinson's disease dementia (PDD) develops in up to 80% after 10-15 years, dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB) (cognitive symptoms precede or occur within 1 year of motor symptoms, fluctuating cognition, visual hallucinations (detailed, formed, recurrent), parkinsonism, REM sleep behavior disorder, neuroleptic sensitivity (severe adverse reactions to antipsychotics, especially haloperidol, avoid typical antipsychotics, use quetiapine, clozapine, pimavanserin)), psychosis (visual hallucinations (most common, benign initially (seeing people, animals, objects not threatening), may progress to paranoid delusions, Capgras syndrome (imposter believes spouse/relative replaced by impostor), treatment (first-line: reduce dopaminergic medications (anticholinergics, amantadine, MAO-B inhibitors, dopamine agonists, COMT inhibitors, levodopa/carbidopa), if severe, add pimavanserin (Nuplazid) (atypical antipsychotic, selective 5-HT2A inverse agonist, no D2 blockade, not associated with worsening motor symptoms, Black Box Warning for increased mortality in elderly with dementia-related psychosis), quetiapine (low dose 12.5-25 mg at bedtime, minimal EPS), clozapine (most effective, requires regular ANC monitoring due to agranulocytosis risk, reserved for refractory psychosis)), pain (musculoskeletal, dystonic, central neuropathic), olfactory dysfunction (loss of smell, early sign, predates motor symptoms by years)), treatment (pharmacologic: levodopa/carbidopa (Sinemet) (gold standard, most effective for motor symptoms, levodopa (dopamine precursor) crosses BBB, carbidopa (peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor) prevents peripheral conversion to dopamine (reduces nausea, vomiting, cardiac arrhythmias, increases levodopa availability to brain), dosing (immediate-release (IR) (tid-qid, take on empty stomach 30-60 minutes before meals or at least 1-2 hours after meals, separate from high-protein meals (protein competes with levodopa for absorption, may worsen fluctuations)), extended-release (ER) (b.i.d., longer duration, less peak-trough fluctuations), enteral suspension (Duopa) (continuous jejunal infusion via PEG-J tube for advanced Parkinson's with severe fluctuations, dyskinesias)

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NUR 257 Exam 3 Aging and Chronic Illness

2026/2027 Actual Exam Questions with Verified

Answers and Detailed Rationales NGN Grade A


1. A patient with a history of pulmonary embolism (PE) presents with sudden onset of

chest pain and shortness of breath. What is the nurse's priority action?

A. Administer oxygen immediately

B. Raise the head of the bed and assess

C. Notify the health care provider

D. Prepare for intubation

Correct Answer: Raise the head of the bed and assess

Rationale: Raising the head of the bed improves breathing and allows for further

assessment of the patient's condition.



2. A patient with a spinal curve has issues lying flat. This is new information before a

pending surgery. What should the nurse do?

A. Proceed with the surgery as planned

,2|Page


B. Notify the surgical/anesthesia team and assess the curve

C. Cancel the surgery

D. Position the patient supine regardless

Correct Answer: Notify the surgical/anesthesia team and assess the curve

Rationale: The surgical and anesthesia teams need to be informed to plan appropriate

positioning during surgery.



3. Which valvular disorder is associated with pulmonary hypertension and

hemoptysis?

A. Aortic stenosis

B. Mitral valve regurgitation

C. Mitral valve stenosis

D. Aortic regurgitation

Correct Answer: Mitral valve stenosis

Rationale: Mitral valve stenosis leads to pulmonary hypertension, which can present

with fatigue, hemoptysis, and shortness of breath.



4. Treatment for bacterial endocarditis includes:

A. Surgical valve replacement only

, 3|Page


B. Antibiotic therapy until complete eradication is achieved

C. Corticosteroid therapy

D. Diuretic therapy

Correct Answer: Antibiotic therapy until complete eradication is achieved

Rationale: Bacterial endocarditis requires prolonged antibiotic therapy to completely

eradicate the infection.



5. A patient is starting an ACE inhibitor or diuretic. What vital sign is the primary

assessment?

A. Heart rate

B. Respiratory rate

C. Blood pressure

D. Temperature

Correct Answer: Blood pressure

Rationale: Both ACE inhibitors and diuretics can affect blood pressure, requiring

monitoring for effectiveness and safety.



6. A patient needs lipid profile lab work. What should the patient do prior to the test?

A. Eat a high-protein meal

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