NURS 5220 / NURS5220 EXAM 2 TEST BANK |
COMPLETE 2025 ACTUAL EXAM WITH
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS | GUARANTEED
A+ EXAM EXCELLENCE
1. Mrs. Tucker brings her infant daughter in for a newborn visit. On examination,
you are able to express a clear to milky white fluid from the breast bud. You
explain to Mrs. Tucker that this is an expected finding for an infant at which age?
A. Up to 2 months
B. Up to 3 months
C. Up to 4 months
D. Up to 6 months
Answer: Up to 3 months
Rationale: Neonatal galactorrhea (witch's milk) is due to maternal estrogen
crossing the placenta and can persist for up to 3 months of age. It is benign and
requires no intervention.
2. When examining the testes, it is important to palpate the vas deferens. How
should a normal vas deferens feel?
A. Spongy
B. Beaded
C. Rugated
D. Smooth
Answer: D. Smooth
Rationale: The normal vas deferens is palpable as a smooth, firm, cord-like
structure. A beaded or irregular feel suggests pathology such as previous infection
or tuberculosis.
,3. Mrs. Venin brings her 18-year-old son in for a follow-up examination. You have
examined him before due to his enlarged breast tissue, which has not resolved
spontaneously. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Refer him to a surgeon for removal.
B. Explain that it may still resolve spontaneously.
C. Ask about history of sexual activity.
D. Ask about illicit or prescription drug use.
Answer: Ask about illicit or prescription drug use.
Rationale: Persistent gynecomastia in an adolescent should prompt evaluation for
causes including anabolic steroids, marijuana, certain prescription drugs (e.g.,
spironolactone, cimetidine), and endocrine disorders.
4. Mr. Mills, a 38-year-old patient, presents with severe rectal pain and fever.
Which condition might be the cause of the symptoms?
A. An imperforate anus
B. A perianal abscess
C. Benign prostatic hypertrophy
D. An anorectal fistula
Answer: B. A perianal abscess
Rationale: Perianal abscess presents with acute, severe anal/rectal pain, swelling,
and fever. Imperforate anus is congenital; BPH causes urinary symptoms;
anorectal fistula may cause drainage but less acute pain.
5. Mr. Taper is a 50-year-old man who presents to your clinic with a deep
ulceration with rolled edges on his penis. What do you suspect is occurring in this
patient?
A. Epididymitis
B. Herpes simplex virus infection
C. Penile carcinoma
D. Hydrocele
Answer: C. Penile carcinoma
Rationale: A painless, indurated ulcer with rolled (everted) edges is characteristic
,of squamous cell carcinoma of the penis. Herpes presents with grouped vesicles;
epididymitis and hydrocele do not cause penile ulcers.
6. Mrs. Yates is a 58-year-old patient who presents to your office for her yearly
physical examination. She asks you how often a mammogram is recommended.
The best response by the examiner is:
A. "every year."
B. "every 3 years."
C. "every 5 years."
D. "every year if you have a family history of cancer."
Answer: "every year."
Rationale: Current guidelines (e.g., American College of Obstetricians and
Gynecologists) recommend annual mammography starting at age 40. For women
55 and older, biennial screening is an option, but annual is still acceptable. The
most straightforward and commonly cited recommendation is yearly.
7. Mrs. Harold is a 37-year-old patient who presents for her yearly physical
examination. Which statement made by Mrs. Harold would make the examiner
suspect fibrocystic changes?
A. "I have a lump in my breast that is not tender."
B. "My right breast is larger than the left breast."
C. "My nipples are darker than before my baby was born."
D. "I feel lumps before my period."
Answer: "I feel lumps before my period."
Rationale: Fibrocystic breast changes are characterized by cyclic breast pain and
nodularity that worsen premenstrually and improve after menses. Non-tender
lumps are more concerning for malignancy.
8. Mrs. Black brings her 12-year-old daughter in with a complaint of a breast mass.
On examination, you note unilateral breast enlargement with associated tenderness
but no palpable masses. Which action should be taken?
, A. Refer for mammogram.
B. Refer for biopsy.
C. Ask the mother about her own history.
D. Explain that this is an expected finding.
Answer: Explain that this is an expected finding.
Rationale: Unilateral breast enlargement with tenderness in a young adolescent
without a discrete mass is likely thelarche (onset of breast development) or a
benign breast bud. Mammography and biopsy are not indicated in this age group
without suspicious findings.
9. A 25-year-old man presents with a painless, right testicular mass that feels firm
and irregular. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Prescribe antibiotics and re-evaluate in 2 weeks
B. Order a scrotal ultrasound
C. Reassure him that this is likely a hydrocele
D. Refer directly to urology for orchiectomy
Answer: B. Order a scrotal ultrasound
Rationale: A painless, firm, irregular testicular mass is suspicious for testicular
cancer. Scrotal ultrasound is the initial imaging study to differentiate solid from
cystic lesions. Antibiotics are not indicated without signs of infection.
10. A 32-year-old woman reports a spontaneous, unilateral, clear nipple discharge
from a single duct. On examination, no mass is palpable. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Intraductal papilloma
B. Galactorrhea
C. Breast cancer
D. Fibrocystic change
Answer: A. Intraductal papilloma
Rationale: Unilateral, spontaneous, serous or bloody discharge from a single duct
is classic for an intraductal papilloma. Galactorrhea is usually bilateral and milky.
Cancer is less common without a mass.
COMPLETE 2025 ACTUAL EXAM WITH
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS | GUARANTEED
A+ EXAM EXCELLENCE
1. Mrs. Tucker brings her infant daughter in for a newborn visit. On examination,
you are able to express a clear to milky white fluid from the breast bud. You
explain to Mrs. Tucker that this is an expected finding for an infant at which age?
A. Up to 2 months
B. Up to 3 months
C. Up to 4 months
D. Up to 6 months
Answer: Up to 3 months
Rationale: Neonatal galactorrhea (witch's milk) is due to maternal estrogen
crossing the placenta and can persist for up to 3 months of age. It is benign and
requires no intervention.
2. When examining the testes, it is important to palpate the vas deferens. How
should a normal vas deferens feel?
A. Spongy
B. Beaded
C. Rugated
D. Smooth
Answer: D. Smooth
Rationale: The normal vas deferens is palpable as a smooth, firm, cord-like
structure. A beaded or irregular feel suggests pathology such as previous infection
or tuberculosis.
,3. Mrs. Venin brings her 18-year-old son in for a follow-up examination. You have
examined him before due to his enlarged breast tissue, which has not resolved
spontaneously. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Refer him to a surgeon for removal.
B. Explain that it may still resolve spontaneously.
C. Ask about history of sexual activity.
D. Ask about illicit or prescription drug use.
Answer: Ask about illicit or prescription drug use.
Rationale: Persistent gynecomastia in an adolescent should prompt evaluation for
causes including anabolic steroids, marijuana, certain prescription drugs (e.g.,
spironolactone, cimetidine), and endocrine disorders.
4. Mr. Mills, a 38-year-old patient, presents with severe rectal pain and fever.
Which condition might be the cause of the symptoms?
A. An imperforate anus
B. A perianal abscess
C. Benign prostatic hypertrophy
D. An anorectal fistula
Answer: B. A perianal abscess
Rationale: Perianal abscess presents with acute, severe anal/rectal pain, swelling,
and fever. Imperforate anus is congenital; BPH causes urinary symptoms;
anorectal fistula may cause drainage but less acute pain.
5. Mr. Taper is a 50-year-old man who presents to your clinic with a deep
ulceration with rolled edges on his penis. What do you suspect is occurring in this
patient?
A. Epididymitis
B. Herpes simplex virus infection
C. Penile carcinoma
D. Hydrocele
Answer: C. Penile carcinoma
Rationale: A painless, indurated ulcer with rolled (everted) edges is characteristic
,of squamous cell carcinoma of the penis. Herpes presents with grouped vesicles;
epididymitis and hydrocele do not cause penile ulcers.
6. Mrs. Yates is a 58-year-old patient who presents to your office for her yearly
physical examination. She asks you how often a mammogram is recommended.
The best response by the examiner is:
A. "every year."
B. "every 3 years."
C. "every 5 years."
D. "every year if you have a family history of cancer."
Answer: "every year."
Rationale: Current guidelines (e.g., American College of Obstetricians and
Gynecologists) recommend annual mammography starting at age 40. For women
55 and older, biennial screening is an option, but annual is still acceptable. The
most straightforward and commonly cited recommendation is yearly.
7. Mrs. Harold is a 37-year-old patient who presents for her yearly physical
examination. Which statement made by Mrs. Harold would make the examiner
suspect fibrocystic changes?
A. "I have a lump in my breast that is not tender."
B. "My right breast is larger than the left breast."
C. "My nipples are darker than before my baby was born."
D. "I feel lumps before my period."
Answer: "I feel lumps before my period."
Rationale: Fibrocystic breast changes are characterized by cyclic breast pain and
nodularity that worsen premenstrually and improve after menses. Non-tender
lumps are more concerning for malignancy.
8. Mrs. Black brings her 12-year-old daughter in with a complaint of a breast mass.
On examination, you note unilateral breast enlargement with associated tenderness
but no palpable masses. Which action should be taken?
, A. Refer for mammogram.
B. Refer for biopsy.
C. Ask the mother about her own history.
D. Explain that this is an expected finding.
Answer: Explain that this is an expected finding.
Rationale: Unilateral breast enlargement with tenderness in a young adolescent
without a discrete mass is likely thelarche (onset of breast development) or a
benign breast bud. Mammography and biopsy are not indicated in this age group
without suspicious findings.
9. A 25-year-old man presents with a painless, right testicular mass that feels firm
and irregular. What is the most appropriate next step?
A. Prescribe antibiotics and re-evaluate in 2 weeks
B. Order a scrotal ultrasound
C. Reassure him that this is likely a hydrocele
D. Refer directly to urology for orchiectomy
Answer: B. Order a scrotal ultrasound
Rationale: A painless, firm, irregular testicular mass is suspicious for testicular
cancer. Scrotal ultrasound is the initial imaging study to differentiate solid from
cystic lesions. Antibiotics are not indicated without signs of infection.
10. A 32-year-old woman reports a spontaneous, unilateral, clear nipple discharge
from a single duct. On examination, no mass is palpable. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Intraductal papilloma
B. Galactorrhea
C. Breast cancer
D. Fibrocystic change
Answer: A. Intraductal papilloma
Rationale: Unilateral, spontaneous, serous or bloody discharge from a single duct
is classic for an intraductal papilloma. Galactorrhea is usually bilateral and milky.
Cancer is less common without a mass.
