Pn 3006 Final Exam Actual Exam Complete
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1. A client with chronic heart failure reports a 2-kg weight
gain in 3 days, increased dyspnea, and ankle edema. Which
action should the nurse take first?
A. Restrict oral fluids to 1 L/day
B. Administer furosemide 40 mg IV push
C. Auscultate lung sounds
D. Encourage leg elevation
Correct Answer: C – Assess first (lung sounds for crackles).
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Then notify provider for diuretic order.
Rationale: Assessment precedes intervention.
2. A client with diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose of 45
mg/dL and is unconscious. Which intervention is priority?
A. 15 g oral glucose gel
B. Glucagon 1 mg IM
C. 50% dextrose IV push
D. Repeat fingerstick in 15 min
Correct Answer: C – Unconscious = cannot protect airway; IV
dextrose is first-line.
Rationale: Glucagon (B) if no IV access.
3. A post-operative client has a sudden onset of chest pain,
dyspnea, and SpO₂ 88%. The nurse suspects pulmonary
embolism. What is the priority action?
A. Obtain ECG
B. Apply O₂ at 4 L/min
C. Elevate head of bed
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D. Start a second IV line
Correct Answer: B – Hypoxia is immediate threat. Oxygen
first, then notify provider.
4. A client with cirrhosis has asterixis, confusion, and elevated
ammonia. Which diet order is most appropriate?
A. High-protein, low-sodium
B. Low-protein, low-sodium
C. High-carbohydrate, low-potassium
D. Fluid restriction only
Correct Answer: B – Low-protein reduces ammonia production.
Low-sodium for ascites.
5. A client with chronic kidney disease (stage 4) has a
potassium of 6.8 mEq/L. Which ECG finding is most
concerning?
A. Peaked T waves
B. U waves
C. Prolonged PR interval
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D. ST depression
Correct Answer: A – Peaked T waves = early hyperkalemia.
Risk of cardiac arrest.
6. A client with pneumonia has a new order for ceftriaxone.
Before administration, the nurse must assess for allergy to
which drug class?
A. Macrolides
B. Penicillins
C. Fluoroquinolones
D. Aminoglycosides
Correct Answer: B – Cross-sensitivity between penicillins and
cephalosporins (ceftriaxone).
7. A client with deep vein thrombosis is on heparin infusion. The
aPTT is 110 seconds (normal 25–35). The nurse should
anticipate:
A. Increase heparin rate
B. Stop heparin and give protamine