NUR 265 Advanced Medical-Surgical Nursing - Week 6 Comprehensive
Quiz 2026 |Galen College
1. A patient in the early stage of septic shock is likely to exhibit which of the
following hemodynamic clinical manifestations?
A. Cool, clammy skin and bradycardia
B. Severe peripheral edema and decreased urinary output
C. Decreased respiratory rate and hypertension
D. Increased cardiac output and warm, flushed skin
Answer: D
Rationale: In the early (hyperdynamic) phase of septic shock, the patient often exhibits
‘warm shock’ characterized by high cardiac output, low systemic vascular resistance, and
warm, flushed skin.
2. The nurse is calculating fluid resuscitation for a burn patient using the
Parkland Formula. Which of the following is the correct formula for the first 24
hours?
A. 2 mL x kg x % TBSA
B. 10 mL x kg x % TBSA
C. 0.5 mL x kg x % TBSA
D. 4 mL x kg x % TBSA
Answer: D
Rationale: The Parkland Formula is 4 mL of Lactated Ringer’s solution per kilogram of
body weight per percentage of Total Body Surface Area (% TBSA) burned.
,3. Which laboratory value is most indicative of Disseminated Intravascular
Coagulation (DIC)?
A. Decreased D-dimer levels
B. Prolonged Prothrombin Time (PT) and decreased platelets
C. Increased fibrinogen levels
D. Decreased Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT)
Answer: B
Rationale: DIC is characterized by the depletion of clotting factors and platelets, leading to
prolonged PT/PTT and thrombocytopenia, alongside elevated D-dimer levels.
4. A patient with neurogenic shock following a spinal cord injury typically
presents with which set of vital signs?
A. Bradycardia and hypotension
B. Tachycardia and hypertension
C. Tachycardia and hypotension
D. Bradycardia and hypertension
Answer: A
Rationale: Neurogenic shock results from a loss of sympathetic tone, leading to
vasodilation (hypotension) and a lack of compensatory tachycardia (bradycardia).
5. What is the primary goal of the ‘Resuscitation Phase’ of burn injury
management?
A. Wound closure and grafting
B. Prevention of infection
C. Physical therapy and range of motion
D. Maintaining vital organ perfusion and fluid balance
Answer: D
, Rationale: The resuscitation (emergent) phase focuses on stabilizing the airway,
breathing, and circulation, primarily through aggressive fluid resuscitation to prevent
hypovolemic shock.
6. A nurse is treating a patient with anaphylactic shock. What is the first-line
medication to administer?
A. Epinephrine (Adrenalin) IM
B. Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) IV
C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) IV
D. Albuterol nebulizer
Answer: A
Rationale: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it causes
vasoconstriction and bronchodilation to counter the severe allergic reaction.
7. Using the Rule of Nines, what is the estimated TBSA for an adult with burns to
the entire right arm and the entire anterior chest?
A. 18%
B. 27%
C. 36%
D. 22.5%
Answer: A
Rationale: The entire arm is 9% and the anterior chest/torso is 18%. However, ‘anterior
chest’ specifically refers to half of the anterior torso (9%) or 18% if the whole front is
implied. In standard Rule of Nines, Entire Arm (9) + Anterior Trunk (18) = 27. If ‘anterior
chest’ refers to the top half of the trunk, it is 9 + 9 = 18%.
Quiz 2026 |Galen College
1. A patient in the early stage of septic shock is likely to exhibit which of the
following hemodynamic clinical manifestations?
A. Cool, clammy skin and bradycardia
B. Severe peripheral edema and decreased urinary output
C. Decreased respiratory rate and hypertension
D. Increased cardiac output and warm, flushed skin
Answer: D
Rationale: In the early (hyperdynamic) phase of septic shock, the patient often exhibits
‘warm shock’ characterized by high cardiac output, low systemic vascular resistance, and
warm, flushed skin.
2. The nurse is calculating fluid resuscitation for a burn patient using the
Parkland Formula. Which of the following is the correct formula for the first 24
hours?
A. 2 mL x kg x % TBSA
B. 10 mL x kg x % TBSA
C. 0.5 mL x kg x % TBSA
D. 4 mL x kg x % TBSA
Answer: D
Rationale: The Parkland Formula is 4 mL of Lactated Ringer’s solution per kilogram of
body weight per percentage of Total Body Surface Area (% TBSA) burned.
,3. Which laboratory value is most indicative of Disseminated Intravascular
Coagulation (DIC)?
A. Decreased D-dimer levels
B. Prolonged Prothrombin Time (PT) and decreased platelets
C. Increased fibrinogen levels
D. Decreased Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT)
Answer: B
Rationale: DIC is characterized by the depletion of clotting factors and platelets, leading to
prolonged PT/PTT and thrombocytopenia, alongside elevated D-dimer levels.
4. A patient with neurogenic shock following a spinal cord injury typically
presents with which set of vital signs?
A. Bradycardia and hypotension
B. Tachycardia and hypertension
C. Tachycardia and hypotension
D. Bradycardia and hypertension
Answer: A
Rationale: Neurogenic shock results from a loss of sympathetic tone, leading to
vasodilation (hypotension) and a lack of compensatory tachycardia (bradycardia).
5. What is the primary goal of the ‘Resuscitation Phase’ of burn injury
management?
A. Wound closure and grafting
B. Prevention of infection
C. Physical therapy and range of motion
D. Maintaining vital organ perfusion and fluid balance
Answer: D
, Rationale: The resuscitation (emergent) phase focuses on stabilizing the airway,
breathing, and circulation, primarily through aggressive fluid resuscitation to prevent
hypovolemic shock.
6. A nurse is treating a patient with anaphylactic shock. What is the first-line
medication to administer?
A. Epinephrine (Adrenalin) IM
B. Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) IV
C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) IV
D. Albuterol nebulizer
Answer: A
Rationale: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it causes
vasoconstriction and bronchodilation to counter the severe allergic reaction.
7. Using the Rule of Nines, what is the estimated TBSA for an adult with burns to
the entire right arm and the entire anterior chest?
A. 18%
B. 27%
C. 36%
D. 22.5%
Answer: A
Rationale: The entire arm is 9% and the anterior chest/torso is 18%. However, ‘anterior
chest’ specifically refers to half of the anterior torso (9%) or 18% if the whole front is
implied. In standard Rule of Nines, Entire Arm (9) + Anterior Trunk (18) = 27. If ‘anterior
chest’ refers to the top half of the trunk, it is 9 + 9 = 18%.
