NUR 2063 Exam 1: Essentials of Pathophysiology -
Rasmussen University Updated and Latest Questions and
Correct Answers with Rationale
1. A patient has been bedridden for several weeks, and the nurse notices the patient’s calf muscles have
decreased in size. This is an example of which cellular adaptation?
A. Hypertrophy
B. Metaplasia
C. Hyperplasia
D. Atrophy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Atrophy is a decrease in cellular size and functional components. This often occurs due to
disuse, denervation, or lack of endocrine stimulation. In this clinical scenario, the lack of muscle use from
being bedridden leads to muscle fiber shrinking. This process is often reversible once the stimulus for use
returns. It represents a survival mechanism to reduce energy consumption by the cell.
2. Which cellular change is considered a precancerous condition that involves abnormal changes in size,
shape, and organization of mature cells?
A. Metaplasia
B. Dysplasia
C. Hypertrophy
D. Anaplasia
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: Dysplasia refers to abnormal changes in the size, shape, and organization of mature cells. It is
often found in the cervix or respiratory tract and is considered a precursor to cancer. While not a true
adaptive process, it is strongly associated with chronic irritation or inflammation. If the stimulus is
removed, the changes may be reversible. However, if the stimulus persists, it can progress to malignancy.
3. The most common cause of cellular injury is hypoxia, which primarily leads to a decrease in the
production of:
A. Sodium
B. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
C. Lactic acid
D. Calcium
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypoxia is a lack of sufficient oxygen reaching the cells, which halts aerobic metabolism.
Without oxygen, the mitochondria cannot efficiently produce adenosine triphosphate (ATP). The
resulting ATP depletion causes the failure of the sodium-potassium pump. This failure leads to cellular
swelling and potential membrane damage. ATP is the essential energy currency required for all major
cellular functions.
4. During inflammation, which chemical mediator is primarily responsible for increasing capillary
permeability and causing vasodilation immediately after injury?
A. Leukotrienes
B. Histamine
C. Prostaglandins
D. Cytokines
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Histamine is one of the first mediators released during the acute inflammatory response. It is
primarily stored in mast cells and basophils located near blood vessels. Its release causes rapid
vasodilation and increased permeability of the capillaries. This allows fluid and cells to move into the
interstitial space, causing swelling. Histamine is central to the early vascular phase of inflammation.
5. A patient presents with a deep wound that is healing with a significant amount of scar tissue and requires
contraction to close. This is known as:
A. Secondary intention
B. Primary intention
C. Tertiary intention
D. Resolution
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Healing by secondary intention occurs in wounds that have great loss of tissue or are
contaminated. These wounds take longer to heal and result in the formation of larger amounts of scar
tissue. The wound must fill with granulation tissue and undergo contraction to close. This process is
common in pressure ulcers or large surgical wounds left open. It contrasts with primary intention, where
wound edges are cleanly approximated.
6. Which type of necrosis is typically seen in the brain following hypoxic injury or stroke?
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Fat necrosis
C. Liquefactive necrosis
D. Caseous necrosis
, Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Liquefactive necrosis occurs when cells are digested by their own hydrolases, turning the
tissue soft and liquid. This process is characteristic of focal bacterial or fungal infections and hypoxic
death of cells in the brain. In the brain, there is little connective tissue and high lipid content, facilitating
liquefaction. The resulting area is often walled off into cysts or abscesses. This differs from coagulative
necrosis, where the structural architecture is preserved for a few days.
7. In the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS), which stage is characterized by the ‘fight or flight’ response
and activation of the sympathetic nervous system?
A. Resistance stage
B. Exhaustion stage
C. Recovery stage
D. Alarm stage
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The alarm stage is the first phase of the General Adaptation Syndrome. It involves the
activation of the hypothalamus, the sympathetic nervous system, and the adrenal glands. This triggers the
release of catecholamines like epinephrine and norepinephrine. These hormones increase heart rate and
divert blood to essential organs. The body is essentially preparing for immediate physical action against a
stressor.
8. Which hormone is released during the stress response to increase blood glucose levels and suppress the
immune system?
A. Cortisol
B. Insulin
Rasmussen University Updated and Latest Questions and
Correct Answers with Rationale
1. A patient has been bedridden for several weeks, and the nurse notices the patient’s calf muscles have
decreased in size. This is an example of which cellular adaptation?
A. Hypertrophy
B. Metaplasia
C. Hyperplasia
D. Atrophy
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Atrophy is a decrease in cellular size and functional components. This often occurs due to
disuse, denervation, or lack of endocrine stimulation. In this clinical scenario, the lack of muscle use from
being bedridden leads to muscle fiber shrinking. This process is often reversible once the stimulus for use
returns. It represents a survival mechanism to reduce energy consumption by the cell.
2. Which cellular change is considered a precancerous condition that involves abnormal changes in size,
shape, and organization of mature cells?
A. Metaplasia
B. Dysplasia
C. Hypertrophy
D. Anaplasia
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: Dysplasia refers to abnormal changes in the size, shape, and organization of mature cells. It is
often found in the cervix or respiratory tract and is considered a precursor to cancer. While not a true
adaptive process, it is strongly associated with chronic irritation or inflammation. If the stimulus is
removed, the changes may be reversible. However, if the stimulus persists, it can progress to malignancy.
3. The most common cause of cellular injury is hypoxia, which primarily leads to a decrease in the
production of:
A. Sodium
B. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
C. Lactic acid
D. Calcium
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypoxia is a lack of sufficient oxygen reaching the cells, which halts aerobic metabolism.
Without oxygen, the mitochondria cannot efficiently produce adenosine triphosphate (ATP). The
resulting ATP depletion causes the failure of the sodium-potassium pump. This failure leads to cellular
swelling and potential membrane damage. ATP is the essential energy currency required for all major
cellular functions.
4. During inflammation, which chemical mediator is primarily responsible for increasing capillary
permeability and causing vasodilation immediately after injury?
A. Leukotrienes
B. Histamine
C. Prostaglandins
D. Cytokines
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Histamine is one of the first mediators released during the acute inflammatory response. It is
primarily stored in mast cells and basophils located near blood vessels. Its release causes rapid
vasodilation and increased permeability of the capillaries. This allows fluid and cells to move into the
interstitial space, causing swelling. Histamine is central to the early vascular phase of inflammation.
5. A patient presents with a deep wound that is healing with a significant amount of scar tissue and requires
contraction to close. This is known as:
A. Secondary intention
B. Primary intention
C. Tertiary intention
D. Resolution
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Healing by secondary intention occurs in wounds that have great loss of tissue or are
contaminated. These wounds take longer to heal and result in the formation of larger amounts of scar
tissue. The wound must fill with granulation tissue and undergo contraction to close. This process is
common in pressure ulcers or large surgical wounds left open. It contrasts with primary intention, where
wound edges are cleanly approximated.
6. Which type of necrosis is typically seen in the brain following hypoxic injury or stroke?
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Fat necrosis
C. Liquefactive necrosis
D. Caseous necrosis
, Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Liquefactive necrosis occurs when cells are digested by their own hydrolases, turning the
tissue soft and liquid. This process is characteristic of focal bacterial or fungal infections and hypoxic
death of cells in the brain. In the brain, there is little connective tissue and high lipid content, facilitating
liquefaction. The resulting area is often walled off into cysts or abscesses. This differs from coagulative
necrosis, where the structural architecture is preserved for a few days.
7. In the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS), which stage is characterized by the ‘fight or flight’ response
and activation of the sympathetic nervous system?
A. Resistance stage
B. Exhaustion stage
C. Recovery stage
D. Alarm stage
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The alarm stage is the first phase of the General Adaptation Syndrome. It involves the
activation of the hypothalamus, the sympathetic nervous system, and the adrenal glands. This triggers the
release of catecholamines like epinephrine and norepinephrine. These hormones increase heart rate and
divert blood to essential organs. The body is essentially preparing for immediate physical action against a
stressor.
8. Which hormone is released during the stress response to increase blood glucose levels and suppress the
immune system?
A. Cortisol
B. Insulin
