NUR 601 Final Exam: Health Promotion and
Disease Prevention - St. Thomas University
Updated and Latest Questions and Correct
Answers with Rationale
1. According to the USPSTF, which of the following is the recommended screening interval for
breast cancer in women aged 50 to 74 years with average risk?
A. Biennial mammography
B. Annual mammography
C. Mammography every 3 years
D. Screening is not recommended for this age group
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The USPSTF currently recommends biennial mammography screening for
women aged 50 to 74 years to optimize the benefit-to-risk ratio. This secondary prevention
measure aims to detect breast cancer at an early, treatable stage. Clinicians should discuss
individual risk factors with patients outside of this standard age range. Implementing these
guidelines reduces mortality while minimizing potential harms like overdiagnosis. This
recommendation is supported by high-quality evidence regarding the efficacy of
mammography in this demographic.
2. A nurse practitioner provides a flu vaccination to a healthy 30-year-old adult. This action is
an example of which level of prevention?
A. Secondary prevention
B. Tertiary prevention
C. Primary prevention
D. Quaternary prevention
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Primary prevention involves interventions that occur before the onset of
disease to prevent its occurrence. Immunizations are classic examples because they
stimulate the immune system to recognize pathogens. This proactive strategy reduces the
overall burden of infectious diseases within a population. By preventing the initial
infection, the need for more complex medical treatments is significantly diminished.
Maintaining high vaccination rates is a cornerstone of public health and individual
wellness.
,3. In the Health Belief Model, a patient’s belief about the seriousness of a condition and its
consequences is known as:
A. Perceived susceptibility
B. Perceived severity
C. Perceived barriers
D. Cues to action
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Perceived severity refers to the individual’s assessment of the clinical and social
implications of a disease. It influences the person’s motivation to adopt preventive health
behaviors to avoid those consequences. Understanding this construct helps clinicians tailor
education to address specific patient concerns. When combined with perceived
susceptibility, it forms the ‘perceived threat’ of a condition. This model is widely used to
predict and explain health-related behavioral changes.
4. The USPSTF recommends that colorectal cancer screening for average-risk adults should
begin at what age?
A. 40 years
B. 45 years
C. 50 years
D. 55 years
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Updated guidelines now recommend that colorectal cancer screening begin at
age 45 for adults with average risk. This change reflects the increasing incidence of
colorectal cancer among younger populations in recent years. Early screening allows for
the identification and removal of precancerous polyps before they become malignant.
Various modalities such as colonoscopy or stool-based tests can be utilized based on
patient preference. Clinicians must ensure that patients understand the importance of
timely screening to improve long-term outcomes.
5. Which screening tool is most appropriate for identifying depression in a primary care
setting?
A. Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)
B. Braden Scale
C. CAGE questionnaire
D. Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9)
Correct Answer: D
, Rationale: The PHQ-9 is a validated tool specifically designed to screen for and monitor
the severity of depression. It consists of nine questions based on DSM-5 criteria for major
depressive disorder. Using this tool facilitates early intervention and management of
mental health conditions in a primary care environment. It is easy to administer and
provides a quantitative score to track patient progress over time. Routine screening for
depression is essential for holistic health promotion and suicide prevention.
6. What is the primary goal of tertiary prevention strategies?
A. Preventing the initial onset of a disease
B. Detecting disease at an asymptomatic stage
C. Reducing the impact of an ongoing illness or injury
D. Avoiding unnecessary medical interventions
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tertiary prevention focuses on managing established chronic diseases to
prevent further functional decline. Examples include cardiac rehabilitation after a
myocardial infarction or physical therapy for stroke patients. The aim is to improve quality
of life and increase life expectancy despite existing health challenges. It differs from
primary and secondary levels by focusing on rehabilitation and complication management.
Effective tertiary prevention reduces healthcare costs by preventing acute exacerbations
and hospitalizations.
7. A 66-year-old male smoker should receive a one-time screening for which condition
according to USPSTF Grade B recommendations?
A. Lung cancer
B. Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)
C. Prostate cancer
D. Carotid artery stenosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The USPSTF recommends a one-time screening for AAA using ultrasonography
in men aged 65 to 75 who have ever smoked. This targeted screening helps identify
potentially fatal aneurysms before they rupture. Smoking is the strongest risk factor for the
development and expansion of aortic aneurysms. Early detection allows for elective
surgical repair or close monitoring depending on the size. This recommendation highlights
the importance of risk-based screening in preventive clinical practice.
8. Which of the following describes the concept of ‘Social Determinants of Health’?
A. The conditions in which people are born, grow, live, work, and age
B. The biological mechanisms of disease progression
Disease Prevention - St. Thomas University
Updated and Latest Questions and Correct
Answers with Rationale
1. According to the USPSTF, which of the following is the recommended screening interval for
breast cancer in women aged 50 to 74 years with average risk?
A. Biennial mammography
B. Annual mammography
C. Mammography every 3 years
D. Screening is not recommended for this age group
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The USPSTF currently recommends biennial mammography screening for
women aged 50 to 74 years to optimize the benefit-to-risk ratio. This secondary prevention
measure aims to detect breast cancer at an early, treatable stage. Clinicians should discuss
individual risk factors with patients outside of this standard age range. Implementing these
guidelines reduces mortality while minimizing potential harms like overdiagnosis. This
recommendation is supported by high-quality evidence regarding the efficacy of
mammography in this demographic.
2. A nurse practitioner provides a flu vaccination to a healthy 30-year-old adult. This action is
an example of which level of prevention?
A. Secondary prevention
B. Tertiary prevention
C. Primary prevention
D. Quaternary prevention
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Primary prevention involves interventions that occur before the onset of
disease to prevent its occurrence. Immunizations are classic examples because they
stimulate the immune system to recognize pathogens. This proactive strategy reduces the
overall burden of infectious diseases within a population. By preventing the initial
infection, the need for more complex medical treatments is significantly diminished.
Maintaining high vaccination rates is a cornerstone of public health and individual
wellness.
,3. In the Health Belief Model, a patient’s belief about the seriousness of a condition and its
consequences is known as:
A. Perceived susceptibility
B. Perceived severity
C. Perceived barriers
D. Cues to action
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Perceived severity refers to the individual’s assessment of the clinical and social
implications of a disease. It influences the person’s motivation to adopt preventive health
behaviors to avoid those consequences. Understanding this construct helps clinicians tailor
education to address specific patient concerns. When combined with perceived
susceptibility, it forms the ‘perceived threat’ of a condition. This model is widely used to
predict and explain health-related behavioral changes.
4. The USPSTF recommends that colorectal cancer screening for average-risk adults should
begin at what age?
A. 40 years
B. 45 years
C. 50 years
D. 55 years
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Updated guidelines now recommend that colorectal cancer screening begin at
age 45 for adults with average risk. This change reflects the increasing incidence of
colorectal cancer among younger populations in recent years. Early screening allows for
the identification and removal of precancerous polyps before they become malignant.
Various modalities such as colonoscopy or stool-based tests can be utilized based on
patient preference. Clinicians must ensure that patients understand the importance of
timely screening to improve long-term outcomes.
5. Which screening tool is most appropriate for identifying depression in a primary care
setting?
A. Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)
B. Braden Scale
C. CAGE questionnaire
D. Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9)
Correct Answer: D
, Rationale: The PHQ-9 is a validated tool specifically designed to screen for and monitor
the severity of depression. It consists of nine questions based on DSM-5 criteria for major
depressive disorder. Using this tool facilitates early intervention and management of
mental health conditions in a primary care environment. It is easy to administer and
provides a quantitative score to track patient progress over time. Routine screening for
depression is essential for holistic health promotion and suicide prevention.
6. What is the primary goal of tertiary prevention strategies?
A. Preventing the initial onset of a disease
B. Detecting disease at an asymptomatic stage
C. Reducing the impact of an ongoing illness or injury
D. Avoiding unnecessary medical interventions
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Tertiary prevention focuses on managing established chronic diseases to
prevent further functional decline. Examples include cardiac rehabilitation after a
myocardial infarction or physical therapy for stroke patients. The aim is to improve quality
of life and increase life expectancy despite existing health challenges. It differs from
primary and secondary levels by focusing on rehabilitation and complication management.
Effective tertiary prevention reduces healthcare costs by preventing acute exacerbations
and hospitalizations.
7. A 66-year-old male smoker should receive a one-time screening for which condition
according to USPSTF Grade B recommendations?
A. Lung cancer
B. Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)
C. Prostate cancer
D. Carotid artery stenosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The USPSTF recommends a one-time screening for AAA using ultrasonography
in men aged 65 to 75 who have ever smoked. This targeted screening helps identify
potentially fatal aneurysms before they rupture. Smoking is the strongest risk factor for the
development and expansion of aortic aneurysms. Early detection allows for elective
surgical repair or close monitoring depending on the size. This recommendation highlights
the importance of risk-based screening in preventive clinical practice.
8. Which of the following describes the concept of ‘Social Determinants of Health’?
A. The conditions in which people are born, grow, live, work, and age
B. The biological mechanisms of disease progression
