NUR 601 Exam 3: Health Promotion and Disease
Prevention - St. Thomas University Updated and
Latest Questions and Correct Answers with
Rationale
1. According to the Health Belief Model, which factor is most likely to influence a patient’s
decision to undergo a screening mammogram?
A. The availability of transport to the clinic
B. Previous experience with diagnostic testing
C. The patient’s level of formal education
D. The perceived susceptibility to breast cancer
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The Health Belief Model emphasizes that personal perceptions of a health
condition influence behavior. Perceived susceptibility refers to the patient’s belief about
the risk of developing a specific disease. If a patient feels they are at high risk, they are
more likely to seek preventive measures. This model helps providers understand why
patients may or may not accept health interventions. Addressing these perceptions is
critical for effective health promotion and disease prevention strategies.
2. A patient in the Transtheoretical Model of Change is thinking about quitting smoking
within the next six months but has not yet taken any action. What stage are they in?
A. Contemplation
B. Preparation
C. Precontemplation
D. Action
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the Contemplation stage, individuals are aware that a problem exists and are
seriously thinking about overcoming it. They generally plan to take action within the next
six months but have not made a commitment. This stage is characterized by ambivalence as
they weigh the pros and cons of changing. Unlike the preparation stage, they have not yet
set a specific timeline or started small steps. Nurses must use motivational interviewing
techniques to move patients from this stage toward active change.
3. Which of the following interventions is an example of tertiary prevention in a community
setting?
A. Providing flu vaccinations at a local senior center
,B. Screening middle school students for scoliosis
C. Distributing pamphlets on the dangers of sun exposure
D. Conducting a support group for individuals with heart failure
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Tertiary prevention focuses on managing disease and preventing complications
in individuals who already have a diagnosis. A support group for heart failure aims to
improve quality of life and reduce hospital readmissions. Primary prevention involves
preventing the onset of disease through vaccinations or education. Secondary prevention
involves early detection through screening methods to identify asymptomatic diseases.
Understanding these levels allows community health nurses to tailor interventions to the
population’s specific needs.
4. When providing culturally competent care, which action should the nurse take first to
improve communication with a non-English speaking patient?
A. Ask the patient’s family member to translate
B. Use medical terminology clearly and slowly
C. Obtain a certified medical interpreter
D. Rely on non-verbal gestures and pictures
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Providing a certified medical interpreter is the gold standard for ensuring
accurate clinical communication. Family members may lack medical knowledge or have
personal biases that interfere with the message. This approach adheres to federal
regulations regarding language access in healthcare settings. It also protects the patient’s
privacy and ensures informed consent is properly obtained. Cultural competence requires
recognizing that linguistic barriers are a significant hurdle to health equity.
5. In the ‘OARS’ acronym used in Motivational Interviewing, what does the ‘R’ stand for?
A. Reasoning
B. Relationship Building
C. Resistance Assessment
D. Reflective Listening
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Reflective listening is a core component of motivational interviewing that
demonstrates empathy and understanding. It involves mirroring back what the patient said
to clarify meanings and encourage further dialogue. This technique helps build rapport and
reduces patient defensiveness during behavior change discussions. The other components
, of OARS are open-ended questions, affirmations, and summaries. Mastery of these skills is
essential for promoting long-term patient adherence to health plans.
6. A nurse practitioner is conducting a windshield survey of a new neighborhood. This activity
is primarily used to assess:
A. Individual health histories of the residents
B. The specific incidence rate of infectious diseases
C. The environmental and social conditions of the community
D. The efficacy of local hospital emergency services
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A windshield survey is a systematic observation of a community from a moving
vehicle. It allows health professionals to assess the environment, infrastructure, and social
determinants of health. Indicators such as housing quality, green spaces, and grocery store
availability are observed. This data provides a baseline for identifying community needs
and planning relevant health programs. It is a foundational tool in community health
assessment and strategy development.
7. Which concept from Bandura’s Social Cognitive Theory refers to an individual’s belief in
their capacity to execute behaviors necessary to produce specific performance attainments?
A. Self-efficacy
B. Outcome expectancy
C. Locus of control
D. Reciprocal determinism
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Self-efficacy is the most critical factor in predicting behavior change according
to Albert Bandura. It reflects the confidence an individual has in their ability to perform a
specific task under various conditions. Patients with high self-efficacy are more likely to
persist in the face of obstacles. Providers can improve self-efficacy through mastery
experiences, modeling, and positive reinforcement. This concept is widely used across
various health promotion frameworks to improve patient outcomes.
8. The nurse uses the ‘Teach-back’ method when educating a patient about a new
medication. What is the primary purpose of this technique?
A. To ensure the patient can read the prescription label
B. To speed up the discharge process in the clinical setting
C. To assess the patient’s comprehension and clarify information
D. To test the patient’s intelligence and cognitive function
Prevention - St. Thomas University Updated and
Latest Questions and Correct Answers with
Rationale
1. According to the Health Belief Model, which factor is most likely to influence a patient’s
decision to undergo a screening mammogram?
A. The availability of transport to the clinic
B. Previous experience with diagnostic testing
C. The patient’s level of formal education
D. The perceived susceptibility to breast cancer
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The Health Belief Model emphasizes that personal perceptions of a health
condition influence behavior. Perceived susceptibility refers to the patient’s belief about
the risk of developing a specific disease. If a patient feels they are at high risk, they are
more likely to seek preventive measures. This model helps providers understand why
patients may or may not accept health interventions. Addressing these perceptions is
critical for effective health promotion and disease prevention strategies.
2. A patient in the Transtheoretical Model of Change is thinking about quitting smoking
within the next six months but has not yet taken any action. What stage are they in?
A. Contemplation
B. Preparation
C. Precontemplation
D. Action
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the Contemplation stage, individuals are aware that a problem exists and are
seriously thinking about overcoming it. They generally plan to take action within the next
six months but have not made a commitment. This stage is characterized by ambivalence as
they weigh the pros and cons of changing. Unlike the preparation stage, they have not yet
set a specific timeline or started small steps. Nurses must use motivational interviewing
techniques to move patients from this stage toward active change.
3. Which of the following interventions is an example of tertiary prevention in a community
setting?
A. Providing flu vaccinations at a local senior center
,B. Screening middle school students for scoliosis
C. Distributing pamphlets on the dangers of sun exposure
D. Conducting a support group for individuals with heart failure
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Tertiary prevention focuses on managing disease and preventing complications
in individuals who already have a diagnosis. A support group for heart failure aims to
improve quality of life and reduce hospital readmissions. Primary prevention involves
preventing the onset of disease through vaccinations or education. Secondary prevention
involves early detection through screening methods to identify asymptomatic diseases.
Understanding these levels allows community health nurses to tailor interventions to the
population’s specific needs.
4. When providing culturally competent care, which action should the nurse take first to
improve communication with a non-English speaking patient?
A. Ask the patient’s family member to translate
B. Use medical terminology clearly and slowly
C. Obtain a certified medical interpreter
D. Rely on non-verbal gestures and pictures
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Providing a certified medical interpreter is the gold standard for ensuring
accurate clinical communication. Family members may lack medical knowledge or have
personal biases that interfere with the message. This approach adheres to federal
regulations regarding language access in healthcare settings. It also protects the patient’s
privacy and ensures informed consent is properly obtained. Cultural competence requires
recognizing that linguistic barriers are a significant hurdle to health equity.
5. In the ‘OARS’ acronym used in Motivational Interviewing, what does the ‘R’ stand for?
A. Reasoning
B. Relationship Building
C. Resistance Assessment
D. Reflective Listening
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Reflective listening is a core component of motivational interviewing that
demonstrates empathy and understanding. It involves mirroring back what the patient said
to clarify meanings and encourage further dialogue. This technique helps build rapport and
reduces patient defensiveness during behavior change discussions. The other components
, of OARS are open-ended questions, affirmations, and summaries. Mastery of these skills is
essential for promoting long-term patient adherence to health plans.
6. A nurse practitioner is conducting a windshield survey of a new neighborhood. This activity
is primarily used to assess:
A. Individual health histories of the residents
B. The specific incidence rate of infectious diseases
C. The environmental and social conditions of the community
D. The efficacy of local hospital emergency services
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A windshield survey is a systematic observation of a community from a moving
vehicle. It allows health professionals to assess the environment, infrastructure, and social
determinants of health. Indicators such as housing quality, green spaces, and grocery store
availability are observed. This data provides a baseline for identifying community needs
and planning relevant health programs. It is a foundational tool in community health
assessment and strategy development.
7. Which concept from Bandura’s Social Cognitive Theory refers to an individual’s belief in
their capacity to execute behaviors necessary to produce specific performance attainments?
A. Self-efficacy
B. Outcome expectancy
C. Locus of control
D. Reciprocal determinism
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Self-efficacy is the most critical factor in predicting behavior change according
to Albert Bandura. It reflects the confidence an individual has in their ability to perform a
specific task under various conditions. Patients with high self-efficacy are more likely to
persist in the face of obstacles. Providers can improve self-efficacy through mastery
experiences, modeling, and positive reinforcement. This concept is widely used across
various health promotion frameworks to improve patient outcomes.
8. The nurse uses the ‘Teach-back’ method when educating a patient about a new
medication. What is the primary purpose of this technique?
A. To ensure the patient can read the prescription label
B. To speed up the discharge process in the clinical setting
C. To assess the patient’s comprehension and clarify information
D. To test the patient’s intelligence and cognitive function
