N225 | N225 Exam 3: Nutrition - WCU Updated and
Latest Questions and Correct Answers with
Rationale
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client with Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD).
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A. Drink a glass of milk before bedtime.
B. Consume three large meals daily instead of snacking.
C. Avoid eating within 3 hours of going to sleep.
D. Lie flat for 30 minutes after eating.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clients with GERD should avoid eating close to bedtime to prevent nocturnal
reflux. Elevation of the head of the bed during sleep is also beneficial for symptom
management. Foods that lower esophageal sphincter pressure, such as caffeine and fats,
should be minimized. Large meals increase gastric pressure and should be replaced with
smaller, more frequent portions. These lifestyle modifications help reduce the frequency
and severity of acid reflux episodes.
2. A client newly diagnosed with Celiac disease is being educated on a gluten-free diet. Which
food choice indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. Quinoa with roasted vegetables
B. Rye crackers
C. Whole wheat bread
D. Barley soup
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Celiac disease requires strict avoidance of gluten found in wheat, rye, and
barley. Quinoa is a naturally gluten-free grain that provides essential nutrients for these
patients. Patients must be vigilant about cross-contamination in processed food items.
Understanding food labeling is a critical component of managing this chronic autoimmune
condition. Choosing whole, unprocessed foods like vegetables and gluten-free grains
ensures nutritional adequacy while avoiding triggers.
3. A nurse is caring for a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of Diverticulitis. Which diet
should the nurse expect to be ordered initially?
A. High-fiber diet
B. High-protein, low-fat diet
,C. Regular diet with no restrictions
D. Clear liquid diet
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During an acute phase of diverticulitis, the bowel requires rest to allow
inflammation to subside. A clear liquid diet is typically prescribed initially to minimize
colon stimulation. Once symptoms improve, the diet is gradually advanced to low-fiber and
then high-fiber. High fiber is only recommended for diverticulosis to prevent future flare-
ups, not during an active infection. This phased approach helps manage pain and prevents
complications like perforation.
4. Which of the following laboratory values is the most important to monitor in a client with
Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) receiving nutritional therapy?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum potassium
C. Hemoglobin
D. Total cholesterol
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Serum potassium is critical because the kidneys’ ability to excrete it decreases
in CKD. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias and life-threatening
complications. Nutritional therapy for CKD often involves limiting high-potassium foods
like bananas and potatoes. Nurses must monitor these levels closely to adjust dietary
intake and medication. Maintaining potassium within a safe range is a primary goal of renal
medical nutrition therapy.
5. The DASH diet (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) emphasizes the intake of which
nutrients to lower blood pressure?
A. Potassium, calcium, and magnesium
B. Saturated fats and simple sugars
C. High protein and low carbohydrates
D. Sodium and phosphorus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The DASH diet focuses on increasing minerals that have a natural blood-
pressure-lowering effect. These include potassium, calcium, and magnesium found in fruits,
vegetables, and low-fat dairy. It also mandates a significant reduction in sodium intake to
enhance efficacy. By reducing saturated fat and cholesterol, the diet supports overall
cardiovascular health. Research consistently shows that following this pattern can
significantly reduce systolic and diastolic blood pressure.
, 6. A client with Type 2 Diabetes is learning about carbohydrate counting. Why is this method
effective for blood glucose management?
A. It focuses on the total amount of carbs rather than the source.
B. It eliminates all sugar from the diet.
C. It requires the client to eat only protein at dinner.
D. It guarantees weight loss within one month.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Carbohydrate counting provides flexibility while maintaining consistent
glycemic control throughout the day. The total amount of carbohydrates consumed has the
greatest impact on postprandial blood glucose levels. This method allows clients to
incorporate a variety of foods into their meal plans. Consistency in carbohydrate intake
helps match insulin or medication doses to nutritional intake. It empowers patients to take
an active role in managing their metabolic health.
7. A client is 2 days post-gastrectomy and is at risk for dumping syndrome. Which dietary
intervention should the nurse suggest?
A. Consume small, frequent meals with protein and fat.
B. Eat high-sugar snacks to maintain energy.
C. Drink fluids primarily during the meal.
D. Increase intake of simple carbohydrates.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Dumping syndrome occurs when food moves too rapidly from the stomach into
the small intestine. Including protein and fat in each meal slows gastric emptying and
provides sustained energy. Clients should avoid drinking liquids with meals, as this speeds
up the transit of food. Simple sugars should be avoided to prevent rapid shifts in fluid and
insulin response. These strategies help minimize symptoms like dizziness, tachycardia, and
abdominal cramping after eating.
8. Which nutritional recommendation is appropriate for a client with Cirrhosis and ascites?
A. High-sodium diet to replace electrolytes
B. Increasing caffeine to improve liver function
C. Low-protein diet for all stages
D. Fluid restriction and low-sodium intake
Correct Answer: D
Latest Questions and Correct Answers with
Rationale
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client with Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD).
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A. Drink a glass of milk before bedtime.
B. Consume three large meals daily instead of snacking.
C. Avoid eating within 3 hours of going to sleep.
D. Lie flat for 30 minutes after eating.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clients with GERD should avoid eating close to bedtime to prevent nocturnal
reflux. Elevation of the head of the bed during sleep is also beneficial for symptom
management. Foods that lower esophageal sphincter pressure, such as caffeine and fats,
should be minimized. Large meals increase gastric pressure and should be replaced with
smaller, more frequent portions. These lifestyle modifications help reduce the frequency
and severity of acid reflux episodes.
2. A client newly diagnosed with Celiac disease is being educated on a gluten-free diet. Which
food choice indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. Quinoa with roasted vegetables
B. Rye crackers
C. Whole wheat bread
D. Barley soup
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Celiac disease requires strict avoidance of gluten found in wheat, rye, and
barley. Quinoa is a naturally gluten-free grain that provides essential nutrients for these
patients. Patients must be vigilant about cross-contamination in processed food items.
Understanding food labeling is a critical component of managing this chronic autoimmune
condition. Choosing whole, unprocessed foods like vegetables and gluten-free grains
ensures nutritional adequacy while avoiding triggers.
3. A nurse is caring for a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of Diverticulitis. Which diet
should the nurse expect to be ordered initially?
A. High-fiber diet
B. High-protein, low-fat diet
,C. Regular diet with no restrictions
D. Clear liquid diet
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During an acute phase of diverticulitis, the bowel requires rest to allow
inflammation to subside. A clear liquid diet is typically prescribed initially to minimize
colon stimulation. Once symptoms improve, the diet is gradually advanced to low-fiber and
then high-fiber. High fiber is only recommended for diverticulosis to prevent future flare-
ups, not during an active infection. This phased approach helps manage pain and prevents
complications like perforation.
4. Which of the following laboratory values is the most important to monitor in a client with
Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) receiving nutritional therapy?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum potassium
C. Hemoglobin
D. Total cholesterol
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Serum potassium is critical because the kidneys’ ability to excrete it decreases
in CKD. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias and life-threatening
complications. Nutritional therapy for CKD often involves limiting high-potassium foods
like bananas and potatoes. Nurses must monitor these levels closely to adjust dietary
intake and medication. Maintaining potassium within a safe range is a primary goal of renal
medical nutrition therapy.
5. The DASH diet (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) emphasizes the intake of which
nutrients to lower blood pressure?
A. Potassium, calcium, and magnesium
B. Saturated fats and simple sugars
C. High protein and low carbohydrates
D. Sodium and phosphorus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The DASH diet focuses on increasing minerals that have a natural blood-
pressure-lowering effect. These include potassium, calcium, and magnesium found in fruits,
vegetables, and low-fat dairy. It also mandates a significant reduction in sodium intake to
enhance efficacy. By reducing saturated fat and cholesterol, the diet supports overall
cardiovascular health. Research consistently shows that following this pattern can
significantly reduce systolic and diastolic blood pressure.
, 6. A client with Type 2 Diabetes is learning about carbohydrate counting. Why is this method
effective for blood glucose management?
A. It focuses on the total amount of carbs rather than the source.
B. It eliminates all sugar from the diet.
C. It requires the client to eat only protein at dinner.
D. It guarantees weight loss within one month.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Carbohydrate counting provides flexibility while maintaining consistent
glycemic control throughout the day. The total amount of carbohydrates consumed has the
greatest impact on postprandial blood glucose levels. This method allows clients to
incorporate a variety of foods into their meal plans. Consistency in carbohydrate intake
helps match insulin or medication doses to nutritional intake. It empowers patients to take
an active role in managing their metabolic health.
7. A client is 2 days post-gastrectomy and is at risk for dumping syndrome. Which dietary
intervention should the nurse suggest?
A. Consume small, frequent meals with protein and fat.
B. Eat high-sugar snacks to maintain energy.
C. Drink fluids primarily during the meal.
D. Increase intake of simple carbohydrates.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Dumping syndrome occurs when food moves too rapidly from the stomach into
the small intestine. Including protein and fat in each meal slows gastric emptying and
provides sustained energy. Clients should avoid drinking liquids with meals, as this speeds
up the transit of food. Simple sugars should be avoided to prevent rapid shifts in fluid and
insulin response. These strategies help minimize symptoms like dizziness, tachycardia, and
abdominal cramping after eating.
8. Which nutritional recommendation is appropriate for a client with Cirrhosis and ascites?
A. High-sodium diet to replace electrolytes
B. Increasing caffeine to improve liver function
C. Low-protein diet for all stages
D. Fluid restriction and low-sodium intake
Correct Answer: D
