NUR257 EXAM 3 ACTUAL 2026/2027 | Aging and Chronic
Illness in Nursing Exam Review | 100% Correct | Grade A |
Galen | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Theories of Aging & Physiologic Changes (10 Questions)
Q1: A 78-year-old patient asks why aging occurs. Which biologic theory explains aging
as a result of accumulated cellular damage from unstable molecules?
A. Telomere theory
B. Free radical theory [CORRECT]
C. Cross-linking theory
D. Immunologic theory
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For Exam 3 in NUR257, Grade A students remember that the free radical
theory proposes aging results from oxidative damage caused by unstable molecules
attacking cellular components. This is one of the most widely accepted biologic
theories of aging.
Q2: A nursing student is studying psychosocial theories of aging. Which theory
suggests that successful aging involves maintaining activities and social engagement
from earlier life stages?
,A. Disengagement theory
B. Activity theory [CORRECT]
C. Continuity theory
D. Socioemotional selectivity theory
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: That's correct because the activity theory proposes that older adults who
remain active and engaged in meaningful activities experience better life satisfaction
and successful aging. This contrasts with disengagement theory (A) which suggests
mutual withdrawal.
Q3: An 82-year-old patient has decreased visual acuity when reading. The nurse
practitioner diagnoses presbyopia. Which finding indicates this is normal age-related
change rather than disease?
A. Sudden onset of vision loss
B. Gradual difficulty focusing on near objects starting around age 40 [CORRECT]
C. Floaters and flashes of light
D. Painful red eye
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For Exam 3, the key is distinguishing normal aging from pathology.
Presbyopia is a normal age-related change with gradual onset around age 40, causing
,difficulty with near vision. Sudden changes (A), floaters/flashes (C), or painful red eye
(D) indicate disease requiring immediate evaluation.
Q4: A 75-year-old patient has decreased creatinine clearance but normal serum
creatinine. Which explanation is most accurate?
A. Kidney function is normal
B. Decreased muscle mass produces less creatinine, masking reduced GFR [CORRECT]
C. The patient is dehydrated
D. Laboratory error
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: That's correct because in older adults, decreased muscle mass produces less
creatinine, so serum creatinine may appear normal even with significantly reduced
kidney function. This is why creatinine clearance or eGFR is more accurate than serum
creatinine alone.
Q5: An 80-year-old patient has increased systolic blood pressure with normal diastolic
pressure. Which cardiovascular change explains this finding?
A. Increased cardiac output
B. Decreased arterial compliance and increased systemic vascular resistance
[CORRECT]
C. Decreased blood volume
, D. Increased heart rate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For Exam 3 in NUR257, Grade A students remember that isolated systolic
hypertension results from decreased arterial compliance (stiffening) and increased
SVR—normal age-related cardiovascular changes. This widened pulse pressure is
common in older adults.
Q6: A patient has decreased forced expiratory volume (FEV1) but no respiratory
symptoms. Which interpretation is correct?
A. The patient has COPD
B. This is normal age-related decline in respiratory function [CORRECT]
C. The patient has pneumonia
D. The patient has heart failure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: That's correct because FEV1 naturally declines with age due to decreased
chest wall compliance and respiratory muscle strength. Without symptoms or
significant impairment, this represents normal aging rather than disease.
Q7: A 76-year-old patient has decreased taste sensation. Which age-related change
explains this finding?
A. Periodontal disease
Illness in Nursing Exam Review | 100% Correct | Grade A |
Galen | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Theories of Aging & Physiologic Changes (10 Questions)
Q1: A 78-year-old patient asks why aging occurs. Which biologic theory explains aging
as a result of accumulated cellular damage from unstable molecules?
A. Telomere theory
B. Free radical theory [CORRECT]
C. Cross-linking theory
D. Immunologic theory
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For Exam 3 in NUR257, Grade A students remember that the free radical
theory proposes aging results from oxidative damage caused by unstable molecules
attacking cellular components. This is one of the most widely accepted biologic
theories of aging.
Q2: A nursing student is studying psychosocial theories of aging. Which theory
suggests that successful aging involves maintaining activities and social engagement
from earlier life stages?
,A. Disengagement theory
B. Activity theory [CORRECT]
C. Continuity theory
D. Socioemotional selectivity theory
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: That's correct because the activity theory proposes that older adults who
remain active and engaged in meaningful activities experience better life satisfaction
and successful aging. This contrasts with disengagement theory (A) which suggests
mutual withdrawal.
Q3: An 82-year-old patient has decreased visual acuity when reading. The nurse
practitioner diagnoses presbyopia. Which finding indicates this is normal age-related
change rather than disease?
A. Sudden onset of vision loss
B. Gradual difficulty focusing on near objects starting around age 40 [CORRECT]
C. Floaters and flashes of light
D. Painful red eye
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For Exam 3, the key is distinguishing normal aging from pathology.
Presbyopia is a normal age-related change with gradual onset around age 40, causing
,difficulty with near vision. Sudden changes (A), floaters/flashes (C), or painful red eye
(D) indicate disease requiring immediate evaluation.
Q4: A 75-year-old patient has decreased creatinine clearance but normal serum
creatinine. Which explanation is most accurate?
A. Kidney function is normal
B. Decreased muscle mass produces less creatinine, masking reduced GFR [CORRECT]
C. The patient is dehydrated
D. Laboratory error
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: That's correct because in older adults, decreased muscle mass produces less
creatinine, so serum creatinine may appear normal even with significantly reduced
kidney function. This is why creatinine clearance or eGFR is more accurate than serum
creatinine alone.
Q5: An 80-year-old patient has increased systolic blood pressure with normal diastolic
pressure. Which cardiovascular change explains this finding?
A. Increased cardiac output
B. Decreased arterial compliance and increased systemic vascular resistance
[CORRECT]
C. Decreased blood volume
, D. Increased heart rate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For Exam 3 in NUR257, Grade A students remember that isolated systolic
hypertension results from decreased arterial compliance (stiffening) and increased
SVR—normal age-related cardiovascular changes. This widened pulse pressure is
common in older adults.
Q6: A patient has decreased forced expiratory volume (FEV1) but no respiratory
symptoms. Which interpretation is correct?
A. The patient has COPD
B. This is normal age-related decline in respiratory function [CORRECT]
C. The patient has pneumonia
D. The patient has heart failure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: That's correct because FEV1 naturally declines with age due to decreased
chest wall compliance and respiratory muscle strength. Without symptoms or
significant impairment, this represents normal aging rather than disease.
Q7: A 76-year-old patient has decreased taste sensation. Which age-related change
explains this finding?
A. Periodontal disease
