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NURS 370 | PATH370 Exam 2: Pathophysiology - WCU Updated and Latest Questions and Correct Answers with Rationale

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NURS 370 | PATH370 Exam 2: Pathophysiology - WCU Updated and Latest Questions and Correct Answers with Rationale

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NURS 370 | PATH370 Exam 2: Pathophysiology -
WCU Updated and Latest Questions and Correct
Answers with Rationale
1. A patient is diagnosed with primary hypertension. Which of the following mechanisms best
describes the role of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) in this condition?
A. RAAS activation causes widespread vasodilation and increased excretion of sodium by
the kidneys.
B. Decreased renal blood flow leads to the release of renin, which increases blood volume
and systemic vascular resistance.
C. Angiotensin II inhibits the sympathetic nervous system, leading to a decrease in heart
rate.
D. Increased aldosterone levels cause the kidneys to excrete potassium and water, lowering
blood pressure.

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Primary hypertension often involves the chronic activation of the RAAS
pathway. Renin is released in response to perceived low pressure, converting
angiotensinogen to angiotensin I. Angiotensin-converting enzyme then creates angiotensin
II, a potent vasoconstrictor that raises systemic resistance. Additionally, aldosterone
release promotes sodium and water retention, which increases total circulating blood
volume. Together, these mechanisms contribute significantly to sustained elevations in
blood pressure.

2. During the development of atherosclerosis, what is the primary role of ‘foam cells’?
A. They are macrophages that have ingested oxidized LDL and become trapped in the
vessel wall.

B. They are smooth muscle cells that have migrated to the adventitia to repair the vessel.

C. They are endothelial cells that release nitric oxide to prevent platelet aggregation.

D. They are platelets that aggregate at the site of injury to form a stable fibrin clot.

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Atherosclerosis begins with endothelial injury that allows LDL to enter the
tunica intima. Macrophages migrate to the site and phagocytize oxidized LDL particles.
Once these macrophages are engorged with lipids, they are referred to as foam cells. These
foam cells accumulate and form the initial fatty streak in the arterial wall. This process
triggers further inflammation and leads to the formation of a fibrous plaque.

,3. A patient presents with crushing chest pain that occurs at rest and is not relieved by
nitroglycerin. The ECG shows ST-segment elevation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Stable Angina

B. Prinzmetal Angina

C. ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI)

D. Non-ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction (NSTEMI)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: STEMI is characterized by complete occlusion of a coronary artery, leading to
transmural ischemia. The presence of persistent ST-segment elevation on an ECG
distinguishes it from other acute coronary syndromes. Unlike stable angina, the pain
associated with a STEMI occurs regardless of activity and does not resolve with rest.
Biomarkers such as troponin will be elevated due to myocardial cell death. Immediate
reperfusion therapy is critical to prevent permanent damage to the heart muscle.

4. Which clinical manifestation is most characteristic of Left-Sided Heart Failure?
A. Jugular venous distension (JVD)

B. Peripheral edema in the lower extremities

C. Hepatomegaly and splenomegaly

D. Dyspnea and crackles on auscultation

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure leads to the backup of blood into the pulmonary
circulation. As the left ventricle fails to pump effectively, hydrostatic pressure in the
pulmonary capillaries increases. This pressure forces fluid into the alveoli, resulting in
pulmonary edema. Common symptoms include shortness of breath, orthopnea, and
paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. Auscultation often reveals crackles, which are indicative of
fluid in the air sacs.

5. Right-sided heart failure is most commonly caused by which of the following conditions?
A. Aortic valve stenosis

B. Systemic hypertension

C. Left-sided heart failure

D. Mitral valve regurgitation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most frequent cause of right-sided heart failure is the progression of left-
sided heart failure. When the left side fails, pulmonary pressures rise, creating a higher
workload for the right ventricle. Eventually, the right ventricle can no longer overcome this

, resistance and begins to fail as well. This leads to systemic venous congestion, causing
symptoms like JVD and peripheral edema. While isolated right heart failure can occur due
to lung disease, left-sided pathology remains the primary driver.

6. A patient with a history of smoking presents with a chronic cough and excessive mucus
production for at least 3 months for two consecutive years. This is indicative of:
A. Chronic Bronchitis

B. Emphysema

C. Bronchial Asthma

D. Pulmonary Fibrosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Chronic bronchitis is clinically defined by a productive cough lasting for several
months over two years. The pathophysiology involves the hyperplasia of goblet cells and
hypertrophy of bronchial mucous glands. This results in the overproduction of thick mucus
that obstructs the airways. Inflammation and thickening of the bronchial walls further
impair airflow during expiration. Patients are often referred to as ‘blue bloaters’ due to
cyanosis and fluid retention.

7. Which mechanism underlies the development of Emphysema?
A. Hyperresponsiveness of the airways to allergens leading to bronchospasm.

B. Infection of the lower respiratory tract leading to consolidation of lung tissue.

C. Permanent enlargement of gas-exchange airways and destruction of alveolar walls.

D. Fluid accumulation in the pleural space due to heart failure.

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Emphysema involves the irreversible destruction of the alveolar septa and loss
of elastic recoil. This is often caused by an imbalance between proteases and antiproteases,
frequently triggered by smoking. Without elastic recoil, the airways collapse during
expiration, trapping air within the lungs. This leads to hyperinflation and the classic ‘barrel
chest’ appearance seen in patients. Unlike bronchitis, the primary issue is the loss of
surface area for gas exchange rather than mucus.

8. A patient arrives in the ER with sudden onset of pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, and
hemoptysis. They recently had a hip replacement. What should be suspected?
A. Myocardial Infarction

B. Pneumothorax

C. Pulmonary Embolism

D. Pneumonia

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