Veterinary Technician National Examination
(VTNE) Practice Questions and Correct Answers
(Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A |
Instant Download PDF
Question 1: A 5-year-old cat presents with acute onset of lethargy, anorexia, and
vomiting. Bloodwork reveals azotemia and hyperphosphatemia. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Acute kidney injury
D) Hepatic lipidosis
Rationale: Azotemia (elevated BUN/creatinine) and hyperphosphatemia are
hallmark findings in acute kidney injury, often accompanied by lethargy, anorexia,
and vomiting.
Question 2: Which of the following drugs is most commonly used to reverse the
effects of dexmedetomidine in dogs and cats?
A) Naloxone
B) Flumazenil
C) Atipamezole
D) Yohimbine
*Rationale: Atipamezole is a specific alpha-2 antagonist used to reverse
dexmedetomidine and medetomidine. Yohimbine also reverses alpha-2 agonists
but is less specific.*
Question 3: A canine blood smear shows basophilic stippling in numerous
erythrocytes. This finding is most consistent with:
A) Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia
,B) Lead toxicity
C) Iron deficiency anemia
D) Feline leukemia virus
Rationale: Basophilic stippling (ribosomal aggregates) is classically associated
with lead poisoning in dogs, though it can also occur in regenerative anemias.
Question 4: What is the recommended resuscitation fluid bolus dose for a
hypotensive dog?
A) 5 mL/kg
B) 10 mL/kg
C) 20–30 mL/kg
D) 90 mL/kg
*Rationale: For shock or hypotension in dogs, a rapid bolus of isotonic crystalloids
at 20–30 mL/kg is standard. Cats receive smaller boluses (10–15 mL/kg).*
Question 5: Which ECG abnormality is most characteristic of hyperkalemia in a
cat?
A) Tall P waves
B) Widened QRS complex and absent P waves
C) Prolonged QT interval
D) Deep Q waves
Rationale: Hyperkalemia causes progressive ECG changes: peaked T waves, then
widened QRS, flattened/absent P waves, and eventually a sine wave pattern.
Question 6: A horse presents with acute severe colic, and rectal examination
reveals a distended, gas-filled large colon displaced dorsally between the spleen
and left kidney. This describes:
A) Right dorsal displacement
B) Nephrosplenic entrapment (left dorsal displacement)
C) Gastric impaction
D) Cecal torsion
,Rationale: Nephrosplenic (renosplenic) entrapment is a left dorsal displacement of
the large colon between the spleen and left kidney/body wall.
Question 7: Which of the following is the most common primary hemostatic
disorder in dogs?
A) Hemophilia A
B) von Willebrand disease
C) Thrombocytopenia
D) Vitamin K antagonism
Rationale: Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia is the most common acquired
primary hemostatic disorder. von Willebrand disease is the most common
inherited bleeding disorder but less frequent overall.
Question 8: A feline patient has a heart rate of 60 bpm, weak femoral pulses, and
a temperature of 96.5°F. These findings are most consistent with:
A) Hyperthyroidism
B) Hypothermia with bradycardia
C) Pain
D) Sepsis
Rationale: Severe hypothermia (below 97°F) depresses the sinoatrial node, causing
bradycardia and weak pulses along with hypothermia itself.
Question 9: What is the normal body temperature range for a healthy adult dog?
A) 95–97°F
B) 97–99°F
C) 100–102.5°F
D) 103–105°F
Rationale: The normal body temperature for dogs is slightly higher than humans,
ranging from 100 to 102.5°F.
, Question 10: Which of the following is a common sign of dehydration in cats?
A) Increased appetite
B) Tacky mucous membranes
C) Excessive salivation
D) Hyperactivity
Rationale: Tacky or dry mucous membranes are a key clinical sign of dehydration
in cats.
Question 11: What is the primary purpose of a complete blood count (CBC)?
A) To measure liver enzymes
B) To assess kidney function
C) To evaluate the cellular components of blood
D) To determine hormone levels
Rationale: A CBC provides information about red blood cells, white blood cells, and
platelets.
Question 12: Which anesthetic agent is inhaled?
A) Propofol
B) Ketamine
C) Isoflurane
D) Diazepam
Rationale: Isoflurane is a volatile anesthetic agent administered via inhalation.
Question 13: A dog presents with a broken tibia. What type of fracture is
indicated when the bone is broken into several pieces?
A) Greenstick
B) Simple
C) Comminuted
D) Transverse
(VTNE) Practice Questions and Correct Answers
(Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A |
Instant Download PDF
Question 1: A 5-year-old cat presents with acute onset of lethargy, anorexia, and
vomiting. Bloodwork reveals azotemia and hyperphosphatemia. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Acute kidney injury
D) Hepatic lipidosis
Rationale: Azotemia (elevated BUN/creatinine) and hyperphosphatemia are
hallmark findings in acute kidney injury, often accompanied by lethargy, anorexia,
and vomiting.
Question 2: Which of the following drugs is most commonly used to reverse the
effects of dexmedetomidine in dogs and cats?
A) Naloxone
B) Flumazenil
C) Atipamezole
D) Yohimbine
*Rationale: Atipamezole is a specific alpha-2 antagonist used to reverse
dexmedetomidine and medetomidine. Yohimbine also reverses alpha-2 agonists
but is less specific.*
Question 3: A canine blood smear shows basophilic stippling in numerous
erythrocytes. This finding is most consistent with:
A) Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia
,B) Lead toxicity
C) Iron deficiency anemia
D) Feline leukemia virus
Rationale: Basophilic stippling (ribosomal aggregates) is classically associated
with lead poisoning in dogs, though it can also occur in regenerative anemias.
Question 4: What is the recommended resuscitation fluid bolus dose for a
hypotensive dog?
A) 5 mL/kg
B) 10 mL/kg
C) 20–30 mL/kg
D) 90 mL/kg
*Rationale: For shock or hypotension in dogs, a rapid bolus of isotonic crystalloids
at 20–30 mL/kg is standard. Cats receive smaller boluses (10–15 mL/kg).*
Question 5: Which ECG abnormality is most characteristic of hyperkalemia in a
cat?
A) Tall P waves
B) Widened QRS complex and absent P waves
C) Prolonged QT interval
D) Deep Q waves
Rationale: Hyperkalemia causes progressive ECG changes: peaked T waves, then
widened QRS, flattened/absent P waves, and eventually a sine wave pattern.
Question 6: A horse presents with acute severe colic, and rectal examination
reveals a distended, gas-filled large colon displaced dorsally between the spleen
and left kidney. This describes:
A) Right dorsal displacement
B) Nephrosplenic entrapment (left dorsal displacement)
C) Gastric impaction
D) Cecal torsion
,Rationale: Nephrosplenic (renosplenic) entrapment is a left dorsal displacement of
the large colon between the spleen and left kidney/body wall.
Question 7: Which of the following is the most common primary hemostatic
disorder in dogs?
A) Hemophilia A
B) von Willebrand disease
C) Thrombocytopenia
D) Vitamin K antagonism
Rationale: Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia is the most common acquired
primary hemostatic disorder. von Willebrand disease is the most common
inherited bleeding disorder but less frequent overall.
Question 8: A feline patient has a heart rate of 60 bpm, weak femoral pulses, and
a temperature of 96.5°F. These findings are most consistent with:
A) Hyperthyroidism
B) Hypothermia with bradycardia
C) Pain
D) Sepsis
Rationale: Severe hypothermia (below 97°F) depresses the sinoatrial node, causing
bradycardia and weak pulses along with hypothermia itself.
Question 9: What is the normal body temperature range for a healthy adult dog?
A) 95–97°F
B) 97–99°F
C) 100–102.5°F
D) 103–105°F
Rationale: The normal body temperature for dogs is slightly higher than humans,
ranging from 100 to 102.5°F.
, Question 10: Which of the following is a common sign of dehydration in cats?
A) Increased appetite
B) Tacky mucous membranes
C) Excessive salivation
D) Hyperactivity
Rationale: Tacky or dry mucous membranes are a key clinical sign of dehydration
in cats.
Question 11: What is the primary purpose of a complete blood count (CBC)?
A) To measure liver enzymes
B) To assess kidney function
C) To evaluate the cellular components of blood
D) To determine hormone levels
Rationale: A CBC provides information about red blood cells, white blood cells, and
platelets.
Question 12: Which anesthetic agent is inhaled?
A) Propofol
B) Ketamine
C) Isoflurane
D) Diazepam
Rationale: Isoflurane is a volatile anesthetic agent administered via inhalation.
Question 13: A dog presents with a broken tibia. What type of fracture is
indicated when the bone is broken into several pieces?
A) Greenstick
B) Simple
C) Comminuted
D) Transverse
