NURS 435_ ADULT HEALTH SAUNDERS EXAM;150 Q&A with correctly explained Rationales. GUARANTEED PASS

1. A client admitted to the hospital with chest pain and a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus is scheduled for cardiac catheterization. Which medication would need to be withheld for 24 hours before the procedure and for 48 hours after the procedure? 1. Regular insulin 2. Glipizide (Glucotrol) 3. Repaglinide (Prandin) 4. Metformin (Glucophage) 4. Metformin (Glucophage) Rationale: Metformin (Glucophage) needs to be withheld 24 hours before and for 48 hours after cardiac catheterization because of the injection of contrast medium during the procedure. If the contrast medium affects kidney function, with metformin in the system, the client would be at increased risk for lactic acidosis. The medications in the remaining options do not need to be withheld 24 hours before and 48 hours after cardiac catheterization. 2. The nurse is reviewing an electrocardiogram rhythm strip. The P waves and QRS complexes are regular. The PR interval is 0.16 second, and QRS complexes measure 0.06 second. The overall heart rate is 64 beats/minute. Which would be a correct interpretation based on these characteristics? 1. Sinus bradycardia 2. Sick sinus syndrome 3. Normal sinus rhythm 4. First-degree heart block 3. Normal sinus rhythm Rationale: Normal sinus rhythm is defined as a regular rhythm, with an overall rate of 60 to 100 beats/minute. The PR and QRS measurements are normal, measuring 0.12 to 0.20 second and 0.04 to 0.10 second, respectively. 3. A client is wearing a continuous cardiac monitor, which begins to sound its alarm. A nurse sees no electrocardiographic complexes on the screen. Which is the priority action of the nurse? 1. Call a code. 2. Call the health care provider. 3. Check the client's status and lead placement. 4. Press the recorder button on the electrocardiogram console. 3. Check the client's status and lead placement. 4. A client is having frequent premature ventricular contractions. The nurse should place priority on assessment of which item? 1. Sensation of palpitations 2. Causative factors, such as caffeine 3. Precipitating factors, such as infection 4. Blood pressure and oxygen saturation 4. Blood pressure and oxygen saturation Rationale: Premature ventricular contractions can cause hemodynamic compromise. Therefore, the priority is to monitor the blood pressure and oxygen saturation. The shortened ventricular filling time can lead to decreased cardiac output. The client may be asymptomatic or may feel palpitations. Premature ventricular contractions can be caused by cardiac disorders, states of hypoxemia, or by any number of physiological stressors, such as infection, illness, surgery, or trauma, and by intake of caffeine, nicotine, or alcohol. 5. The nurse is evaluating a client's response to cardioversion. Which observation would be of highest priority to the nurse? 1. Blood pressure 2. Status of airway 3. Oxygen flow rate 4. Level of consciousness 2. Status of airway 6. The nurse is caring for a client who has just had implantation of an automatic internal cardioverter- defibrillator. The nurse immediately would assess which item based on priority? 1. Anxiety level of the client and family 2. Presence of a Medic-Alert card for the client to carry 3. Knowledge of restrictions of postdischarge physical activity 4. Activation status of the device, heart rate cutoff, and number of shocks it is programmed to deliver 4. Activation status of the device, heart rate cutoff, and number of shocks it is programmed to deliver 7. A client's electrocardiogram strip shows atrial and ventricular rates of 110 beats/minute. The PR interval is 0.14 second, the QRS complex measures 0.08 second, and the PP and RR intervals are regular. How should the nurse correctly interpret this rhythm? 1. Sinus dysrhythmia 2. Sinus tachycardia 3. Sinus bradycardia 4. Normal sinus rhythm 2. Sinus tachycardia Rationale: Sinus tachycardia has the characteristics of normal sinus rhythm, including a regular PP interval and normal-width PR and QRS intervals; however, the rate is the differentiating factor. In sinus tachycardia, the atrial and ventricular rates are greater than 100 beats/minute. 8. The nurse is assessing the neurovascular status of a client who returned to the surgical nursing unit 4 hours ago after undergoing aortoiliac bypass graft. The affected leg is warm, and the nurse notes redness and edema. The pedal pulse is palpable and unchanged from admission. How should the nurse correctly interpret the client's neurovascular status? 1. The neurovascular status is normal because of increased blood flow through the leg. 2. The neurovascular status is moderately impaired, and the surgeon should be called. 3. The neurovascular status is slightly deteriorating and should be monitored for another hour. 4. The neurovascular status is adequate from an arterial approach, but venous complications are arising. 1. The neurovascular status is normal because of increased blood flow through the leg. Rationale: An expected outcome of aortoiliac bypass graft surgery is warmth, redness, and edema in the surgical extremity because of increased blood flow. The remaining options are incorrect interpretations. 9. The nurse is evaluating the condition of a client after pericardiocentesis performed to treat cardiac tamponade. Which observation would indicate that the procedure was unsuccessful? 1. Rising blood pressure 2. Clearly audible heart sounds 3. Client expressions of relief 4. Rising central venous pressure 4. Rising central venous pressure Rationale: Following pericardiocentesis, a rise in blood pressure and a fall in central venous pressure are expected. The client usually expresses immediate relief. Heart sounds are no longer muffled or distant. 10. A client with angina complains that the anginal pain is prolonged and severe and occurs at the same time each day, most often at rest in the absence of precipitating factors. How would the nurse best describe this type of anginal pain? 1. Stable angina 2. Variant angina 3. Unstable angina 4. Nonanginal pain 2. Variant angina Rationale: Variant angina, or Prinzmetal's angina, is prolonged and severe and occurs at the same time each day, most often at rest. Stable angina is induced by exercise and relieved by rest or nitroglycerin tablets. Unstable angina occurs at lower levels of activity or at rest, is less predictable, and is often a precursor of myocardial infarction. 11. The nurse is monitoring a client with acute pericarditis for signs of cardiac tamponade. Which assessment finding indicates the presence of this complication? 1. Flat neck veins 2. A pulse rate of 60 beats/min 3. Muffled or distant heart sounds 4. Wheezing on auscultation of the lungs 3. Muffled or distant heart sounds Rationale: Assessment findings associated with cardiac tamponade include tachycardia, distant or muffled heart sounds, jugular vein distention with clear lung sounds, and a falling blood pressure accompanied by pulsus paradoxus (a drop in inspiratory blood pressure greater than 10 mm Hg). Bradycardia is not a sign of cardiac tamponade. 12. The home care nurse is providing instructions to a client with an arterial ischemic leg ulcer about home care management and self-care management. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates a need for further instruction? 1. "I need to be sure not to go barefoot around the house." 2. "If I cut my toenails, I need to be sure that I cut them straight across." 3. "It is all right to apply lanolin to my feet, but I shouldn't place it between my toes." 4. "I need to be sure that I elevate my leg above my heart level for at least an hour every day." 4. "I need to be sure that I elevate my leg above my heart level for at least an hour every day." Rationale: Foot care instructions for the client with peripheral arterial disease are the same as those for a client with diabetes mellitus. The client with arterial disease, however, should avoid raising the legs above the level of the heart unless instructed to do so as part of an exercise program or if venous stasis is also present. The client statements in options 1, 2, and 3 are correct statements. 13. The nurse is providing instructions to a client with a diagnosis of hypertension regarding high-sodium items to be avoided. The nurse instructs the client to avoid consuming which item? 1. Bananas 2. Broccoli 3. Antacids 4. Cantaloupe 3. Antacids Rationale: The sodium level can increase with the use of several types of products, including toothpaste and mouthwash; over-the-counter medications such as analgesics, antacids, laxatives, and sedatives; and softened water and mineral water. Clients are instructed to read labels for sodium content. Water that is bottled, distilled, deionized, or demineralized may be used for drinking and cooking. Fresh fruits and vegetables are low in sodium. 14. The nurse is preparing discharge instructions for a client with Raynaud's disease. The nurse should plan to provide which instruction to the client? 1. Use nail polish to protect the nail beds from injury. 2. Stop smoking because it causes cutaneous vasospasm. 3. Wear gloves for all activities involving use of both hands. 4. Always wear warm clothing even in warm climates to prevent vasoconstriction. 2. Stop smoking because it causes cutaneous vasospasm. Rationale: Raynaud's disease is peripheral vascular disease characterized by abnormal vasoconstriction in the extremities. Smoking cessation is one of the most important lifestyle changes that the client must make. The nurse should emphasize the effects of tobacco on the blood vessels and the principles involved in stopping smoking. The nurse needs to provide information to the client about smoking cessation programs available in the community. Options 1 and 4 are incorrect. It is not necessary to wear gloves for all activities. 15. The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client with varicose veins in whom skin breakdown occurred over the varicosities as a result of secondary infection. Which is apriority intervention? 1. Keep the legs aligned with the heart. 2. Elevate the legs higher than the heart. 3. Clean the skin with alcohol every hour. 4. Position the client onto the side every shift. 2. Elevate the legs higher than the heart. 16. The nurse in the medical unit is reviewing the laboratory test results for a client who has been transferred from the intensive care unit. The nurse notes that a cardiac troponin T level assay was performed while the client was in the intensive care unit. The nurse determines that this test was performed to assist in diagnosing which condition? 1. Heart failure 2. Atrial fibrillation 3. Myocardial infarction 4. Ventricular tachycardia 3. Myocardial infarction Rationale: Cardiac troponin T or cardiac troponin I has been found to be a protein marker in the detection of myocardial infarction, and assay for this protein is used in some institutions to aid in the diagnosis of a myocardial infarction. The test is not used to diagnose heart failure, ventricular tachycardia, or atrial fibrillation. 17. The nurse is caring for a client with cardiac disease who has been placed on a cardiac monitor. The nurse notes that the client has developed atrial fibrillation and has a ventricular rate of 150 beats/min. The nurse should next assess the client for which finding? 1. Hypotension 2. Flat neck veins 3. Complaints of nausea 4. Complaints of headache 1. Hypotension Rationale: The client with uncontrolled atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate greater than 100 beats/min is at risk for low cardiac output owing to loss of atrial kick. The nurse assesses the client for palpitations, chest pain or discomfort, hypotension, pulse deficit, fatigue, weakness, dizziness, syncope, shortness of breath, and distended neck veins. 18. The nurse is performing an assessment on a client with a diagnosis of left-sided heart failure. Which assessment component would elicit specific information regarding the client's left-sided heart function? 1. Listening to lung sounds 2. Monitoring for organomegaly 3. Assessing for jugular vein distention 4. Assessing for peripheral and sacral edema 1. Listening to lung sounds 19. The nurse is reviewing the electrocardiogram (ECG) rhythm strip obtained on a client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction. The nurse notes that the PR interval is 0.20 second. The nurse should make which interpretation about this finding? 1. A normal finding 2. Indicative of atrial flutter 3. Indicative of atrial fibrillation 4. Indicative of impending reinfarction 1. A normal finding Rationale: The PR interval represents the time it takes for the cardiac impulse to spread from the atria to the ventricles. The normal range for the PR interval is 0.12 to 0.20 second. Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect. 20. The nurse in the medical unit is assigned to provide discharge teaching to a client with a diagnosis of angina pectoris. The nurse is discussing lifestyle changes that are needed to minimize the effects of the disease process. The client continually changes the subject during the teaching session. The nurse interprets that this client's behavior is most likely related to which problem? 1. Anxiety related to the need to make lifestyle changes 2. Boredom resulting from having already learned the material 3. An attempt to ignore or deny the need to make lifestyle changes 4. Lack of understanding of the material provided at the teaching session and embarrassment about asking questions 3. An attempt to ignore or deny the need to make lifestyle changes Rationale: Denial is a defense mechanism that allows the client to minimize a threat that may be manifested by refusal to discuss what has happened. Denial is a common early reaction associated with chest discomfort, angina, or myocardial infarction (MI). Anxiety usually is manifested by symptoms of sympathetic nervous system arousal. No data are provided in the question that would lead the nurse to interpret the client's behavior as boredom or as either understanding or not understanding the material provided at the teaching session. 21. The nurse in the medical unit is assigned to provide discharge teaching to a client with a diagnosis of angina pectoris. The nurse is discussing lifestyle changes that are needed to minimize the effects of the disease process. The client continually changes the subject during the teaching session. The nurse interprets that this client's behavior is most likely related to which problem? 1. Anxiety related to the need to make lifestyle changes 2. Boredom resulting from having already learned the material 3. An attempt to ignore or deny the need to make lifestyle changes 4. Lack of understanding of the material provided at the teaching session and embarrassment about asking questions 3. An attempt to ignore or deny the need to make lifestyle changes 22. The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who will be admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) of the right leg. The nurse develops the plan, expecting that the health care provider will most likely prescribe which option? 1. Maintain bed rest. 2. Maintain the affected leg in a dependent position. 3. Administer an opioid analgesic every 4 hours around the clock. 4. Apply cool packs to the affected leg for 20 minutes every 4 hours. 1. Maintain bed rest. Rationale: Standard management for the client with DVT includes bed rest; limb elevation; relief of discomfort with warm, moist heat; and analgesics as needed. Ambulation is contraindicated because such activity can cause the thrombus to dislodge and travel to the lungs. Opioid analgesics are not required to relieve pain, and pain normally is relieved with acetaminophen (Tylenol). 23. A client with a diagnosis of varicose veins is scheduled for treatment by sclerotherapy and asks the nurse to describe the procedure. Which response should the nurse make? 1. "It involves tying off the veins so that circulation is redirected in another area." 2. "It involves surgically removing the varicosity, so anesthesia will be required." 3. "It involves tying off the veins to prevent sluggishness of blood from occurring." 4. "It involves injecting an agent into the vein to damage the vein wall and close it off." 4. "It involves injecting an agent into the vein to damage the vein wall and close it off." Rationale: Sclerotherapy is the injection of a sclerosing agent into a varicosity. The agent damages the vessel and causes aseptic thrombosis, which results in vein closure. With no blood flow through the vessel, distention will not occur. The surgical procedure for varicose veins is vein ligation and stripping. This procedure involves tying off the varicose vein and large tributaries and then removing the vein with the use of a hook and wires applied through multiple small incisions in the leg. Other treatments include the application of radiofrequency (RF) energy, in which the vein is heated from the inside by the RF energy and shrinks; collateral veins nearby take over. Laser treatment is another alternative to surgery; in this treatment a laser fiber is used to heat and close the main vessel that is contributing to the varicosity. 24. A female client calls the nurse at the clinic and reports that ever since the vein ligation and stripping procedure was performed, she has been experiencing a sensation as though the affected leg is falling asleep. The nurse should make which response to the client? 1. "Apply warm packs to the leg." 2. "Keep the leg elevated as much as possible." 3. "Contact your health care provider right away to report this problem." 4. "This normally occurs after surgery and will subside when the edema goes down." 3. "Contact your health care provider right away to report this problem." Rationale: A sensation of pins and needles or feeling as though the surgical limb is falling asleep may indicate temporary or permanent nerve damage after surgery. The saphenous vein and the saphenous nerve run close together, and damage to the nerve will produce paresthesias. Options 1, 2, and 4 are inaccurate responses. An alternative to surgery is endovenous ablation of the saphenous vein. Ablation involves the insertion of a catheter that emits energy. This causes collapse and sclerosis of the vein. Potential complications include bruising, tightness along the vein, recanalization (reopening of the vein), and paresthesia. Endovenous ablation also may be done in combination with saphenofemoral ligation or phlebectomy. Transilluminated powdered phlebectomy involves the use of a powdered resector to destroy the varices and then removes the pieces via aspiration. 25. The nurse is caring for a client who has been hospitalized with a diagnosis of angina pectoris. The client is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min. The client asks why the oxygen is necessary. The nurse should provide which information to the client? 1. Oxygen has a calming effect. 2. Oxygen will prevent the development of any thrombus. 3. Oxygen dilates the blood vessels so that they can supply more nutrients to the heart muscle. 4. The pain of angina pectoris occurs because of a decreased oxygen supply to heart cells. 4. The pain of angina pectoris occurs because of a decreased oxygen supply to heart cells. Rationale: The pain associated with angina results from ischemia of myocardial cells. The pain often is precipitated by activity that places more oxygen demand on heart muscle. Supplemental oxygen will help to meet the added demands on the heart muscle. Oxygen does not dilate blood vessels or prevent thrombus formation and does not directly calm the client. 26. A client with a diagnosis of angina pectoris is hospitalized for an angioplasty. The client returns to the nursing unit after the procedure, and the nurse provides instructions to the client regarding home care measures. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates an understanding of the instructions? 1. "I need to cut down on cigarette smoking." 2. "I am so relieved that my heart is repaired." 3. "I need to adhere to my dietary restrictions." 4. "I am so relieved that I can eat anything I want to now." 3. "I need to adhere to my dietary restrictions." 27. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI) and is assisting the client in completing the diet menu. Which beverage should the nurse instruct the client to select from the menu? 1. Tea 2. Cola 3. Coffee 4. Raspberry juice 4. Raspberry juice 28. The nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client with a diagnosis of angina pectoris who takes nitroglycerin for chest pain at home. During the assessment the client complains of chest pain. The nurse should immediately ask the client which question? 1. "Where is the pain located?" 2. "Are you having any nausea?" 3. "Are you allergic to any medications?" 4. "Do you have your nitroglycerin with you?" 1. "Where is the pain located?" Rationale: If a client complains of chest pain, the initial assessment question would be to ask the client about the pain intensity, location, duration, and quality. Although options 2, 3, and 4 all may be components of the assessment, none of these questions would be the initial assessment question with this client. 29. The nurse has provided dietary instructions to a client with coronary artery disease. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the dietary instructions? 1. "I'll need to become a strict vegetarian." 2. "I should use polyunsaturated oils in my diet." 3. "I need to substitute eggs and whole milk for meat." 4. "I should eliminate all cholesterol and fat from my diet." 2. "I should use polyunsaturated oils in my diet." Rationale: The client with coronary artery disease should avoid foods high in saturated fat and cholesterol such as eggs, whole milk, and red meat. These foods contribute to increases in low-density lipoproteins. The use of polyunsaturated oils is recommended to control hypercholesterolemia. It is not necessary to eliminate all cholesterol and fat from the diet. It is not necessary to become a strict vegetarian. 30. A client is admitted to the visiting nurse service for assessment and follow-up after being discharged from the hospital with new-onset heart failure (HF). The nurse teaches the client about the dietary restrictions required with HF. Which statement by the client indicates that further teaching is needed? 1. "I'm not supposed to eat cold cuts." 2. "I can have most fresh fruits and vegetables." 3. "I'm going to weigh myself daily to be sure I don't gain too much fluid." 4. "I'm going to have a ham and cheese sandwich and potato chips for lunch." 4. "I'm going to have a ham and cheese sandwich and potato chips for lunch." 31. The nurse is performing a health screening on a 54-year-old client. The client has a blood pressure of 118/78 mm Hg, total cholesterol level of 190 mg/dL, and fasting blood glucose level of 184 mg/dL. The nurse interprets this to mean that the client has which modifiable risk factor for coronary artery disease (CAD)? 1. Age 2. Hypertension 3. Hyperlipidemia 4. Glucose intolerance 4. Glucose intolerance Rationale: Hypertension, cigarette smoking, and hyperlipidemia are modifiable risk factors that are predictors of CAD. Glucose intolerance, obesity, and response to stress are contributing modifiable risk factors to CAD. Age greater than 40 years is a nonmodifiable risk factor. The nurse places priority on risk factors that can be modified. In this scenario, the abnormal value is the fasting blood glucose level, indicating glucose intolerance as the priority risk factor. 32. The nurse is trying to determine the ability of the client with myocardial infarction (MI) to manage independently at home after discharge. Which statement by the client is the strongest indicator of the potential for difficulty after discharge? 1. "I need to start exercising more to improve my health." 2. "I will be sure to keep my appointment with the cardiologist." 3. "I don't have anyone to help me with doing heavy housework at home." 4. "I think I have a good understanding of what all my medications are for." 3. "I don't have anyone to help me with doing heavy housework at home." Rationale: To ensure the best outcome, clients should be able to comply with instructions related to activity, diet, medications, and follow-up health care on discharge from the hospital after an MI. All of the options except the correct option indicate that the client will be successful in these areas. 33. The home care nurse has taught a client with a problem of inadequate cardiac output about helpful lifestyle adaptations to promote health. Which statement by the client bestdemonstrates an understanding of the information provided? 1. "I will eat enough daily fiber to prevent straining at stool." 2. "I will try to exercise vigorously to strengthen my heart muscle." 3. "I will drink 3000 to 3500 mL of fluid daily to promote good kidney function." 4. "Drinking 2 to 3 oz of liquor each night will promote blood flow by enlarging blood vessels." 1. "I will eat enough daily fiber to prevent straining at stool." 34. A client has been experiencing difficulty with completion of daily activities because of underlying cardiovascular disease, as evidenced by exertional fatigue and increased blood pressure. Which observation by the nurse best indicates client progress in meeting goals for this problem? 1. Ambulates 10 feet farther each day 2. Verbalizes the benefits of increasing activity 3. Chooses a healthy diet that meets caloric needs 4. Sleeps without awakening throughout the night 1. Ambulates 10 feet farther each day Rationale: Each of the options indicates a positive outcome on the part of the client. Both options 2 and the correct one relate to the client problem of difficulty with completion of daily activities. However, the question asks about progress. The correct option is more action-oriented and therefore is the better choice. Option 3 would most likely indicate progress if the client had a problem of inadequate nutritional intake. Option 4 would be a satisfactory outcome for a client experiencing difficulty sleeping. 35. The health care provider has written a prescription for a client to have an echocardiogram. Which action should the nurse take to prepare the client for the procedure? 1. Questions the client about allergies to iodine or shellfish 2. Has the client sign an informed consent form for an invasive procedure 3. Tells the client that the procedure is painless and takes 30 to 60 minutes 4. Keeps the client on nothing-by-mouth (NPO) status for 2 hours before the procedure 3. Tells the client that the procedure is painless and takes 30 to 60 minutes 36. A client with coronary artery disease is scheduled to have a diagnostic exercise stress test. Which instruction should the nurse plan to provide to the client about this procedure? 1. Eat breakfast just before the procedure. 2. Wear firm, rigid shoes, such as workboots. 3. Wear loose clothing with a shirt that buttons in front. 4. Avoid cigarettes for 30 minutes before the procedure. 3. Wear loose clothing with a shirt that buttons in front Rationale: The client should wear loose, comfortable clothing for the procedure. Electrocardiogram (ECG) lead placement is enhanced if the client wears a shirt that buttons in the front. The client should receive nothing by mouth after bedtime or for a minimum of 2 hours before the test. The client should wear rubber-soled, supportive shoes, such as athletic training shoes. The client should avoid smoking, alcohol, and caffeine on the day of the test. Inadequate or incorrect preparation can interfere with the test, with the potential for a false-positive result. 37. A client is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization to diagnose the extent of coronary artery disease. The nurse places highest priority on telling the client to report which sensation during the procedure? 1. Chest pain 2. Urge to cough 3. Warm, flushed feeling 4. Pressure at the insertion site 1. Chest pain Rationale: The client is taught to report chest pain or any unusual sensations immediately. The client also is told that he or she may be asked to cough or breathe deeply from time to time during the procedure. The client is informed that a warm, flushed feeling may accompany dye injection and is normal. Because a local anesthetic is used, the client is expected to feel pressure at the insertion site. 38. A client recovering from pulmonary edema is preparing for discharge. What should the nurse plan to teach the client to do to manage or prevent recurrent symptoms after discharge? 1. Sleep with the head of bed flat. 2. Weigh himself or herself on a daily basis. 3. Take a double dose of the diuretic if peripheral edema is noted. 4. Withhold prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin) if slight respiratory distress occurs. 2. Weigh himself or herself on a daily basis. Rationale: The client can best determine fluid status at home by weighing himself or herself on a daily basis. Increases of 2 to 3 lb in a short period are reported to the health care provider (HCP). The client should sleep with the head of the bed elevated. During recumbent sleep, fluid (which has seeped into the interstitium with the assistance of the effects of gravity) is rapidly reabsorbed into the systemic circulation. Sleeping with the head of the bed flat is therefore avoided. The client does not modify medication dosages without consulting the HCP. 39. A client is scheduled to undergo cardiac catheterization for the first time, and the nurse provides instructions to the client. Which client statement indicates an understanding of the instructions? 1. "It will really hurt when the catheter is first put in." 2. "I will receive general anesthesia for the procedure." 3. "I will have to go to the operating room for this procedure." 4. "I probably will feel tired after the test from lying on a hard x-ray table for a few hours." 4. "I probably will feel tired after the test from lying on a hard x-ray table for a few hours." 40. A client admitted to the hospital with coronary artery disease complains of dyspnea at rest. The nurse caring for the client uses which item as the best means to monitor respiratory status on an ongoing basis? 1. Apnea monitor 2. Oxygen flowmeter 3. Telemetry cardiac monitor 4. Oxygen saturation monitor 4. Oxygen saturation monitor Rationale: Dyspnea in the cardiac client often is accompanied by hypoxemia. Hypoxemia can be detected by an oxygen saturation monitor, especially if it is used continuously. An apnea monitor detects apnea episodes, such as when the client has stopped breathing briefly. An oxygen flowmeter is part of the setup for delivering oxygen therapy. Cardiac monitors detect dysrhythmias. 41. A client with a history of angina pectoris tells the nurse that chest pain usually occurs after going up two flights of stairs or after walking four blocks. What type of angina should the nurse determine that the client is experiencing? 1. Stable 2. Variant 3. Unstable 4. Intractable 1. Stable Rationale: Stable angina is triggered by a predictable amount of effort or emotion. Variant angina is triggered by coronary artery spasm; the attacks are of longer duration than in classic angina and tend to occur early in the day and at rest. Unstable angina is triggered by an unpredictable amount of exertion or emotion and may occur at night; the attacks increase in number, duration, and severity over time. Intractable angina is chronic and incapacitating and is refractory to medical therapy. 42. A client with a first-degree heart block has an electrocardiogram (ECG) taken during an episode of chest pain. The nurse knows that which ECG finding would be an indication of first-degree heart block? 1. Presence of Q waves 2. Tall, peaked T waves 3. Prolonged PR interval 4. Widened QRS complex 3. Prolonged PR interval Rationale: A prolonged PR interval indicates first-degree heart block. The development of Q waves indicates myocardial necrosis. Tall, peaked T waves may indicate hyperkalemia. A widened QRS complex indicates a delay in intraventricular conduction, such as bundle branch block. An ECG taken during a pain episode is intended to capture ischemic changes, which also include ST-segment elevation or depression. 43. The nurse is teaching the client with angina pectoris about disease management and lifestyle changes that are necessary to control disease progression. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? 1. "I will avoid using table salt with meals." 2. "It is best to exercise once a week for 1 hour." 3. "I will take nitroglycerin whenever chest discomfort begins." 4. "I will use muscle relaxation to cope with stressful situations." 2. "It is best to exercise once a week for 1 hour." Rationale: Exercise is most effective when done at least 3 times a week for 20 to 30 minutes to reach a target heart rate. Other healthful habits include limiting salt and fat in the diet and using stress management techniques. The client also should be taught to take nitroglycerin before any activity that previously caused the pain and to take the medication at the first sign of chest discomfort. 44. The ambulatory care nurse is working with a client who has been diagnosed with Prinzmetal's (variant) angina. What should the nurse plan to teach the client about this type of angina? 1. It is most effectively managed by β-blocking agents. 2. It has the same risk factors as stable and unstable angina. 3. It can be controlled with a low-sodium, high-potassium diet. 4. Generally it is treated with calcium-channel–blocking agents 4. Generally it is treated with calcium-channel–blocking agents Rationale: Prinzmetal's angina results from spasm of the coronary vessels and is treated with calcium- channel blockers. β-Blockers are contraindicated because they may actually worsen the spasm. The risk factors are unknown, and this type of angina is relatively unresponsive to nitrates. Diet therapy is not specifically indicated. 45. The nurse working in a long-term care facility is assessing a client who is experiencing chest pain. The nurse should interpret that the pain is most likely caused by myocardial infarction (MI) on the basis of what assessment finding? 1. The client is not experiencing dyspnea. 2. The client is not experiencing nausea or vomiting. 3. The pain has not been relieved by rest and nitroglycerin tablets. 4. The client says the pain began while she was trying to open a stuck dresser drawer. 3. The pain has not been relieved by rest and nitroglycerin tablets. 46. A client with myocardial infarction (MI) has been transferred from the coronary care unit (CCU) to the general medical unit. What activity level should the nurse encourage for the client immediately after transfer? 1. Ad lib activities as tolerated 2. Strict bed rest for 24 hours after transfer 3. Bathroom privileges and self-care activities 4. Unsupervised hallway ambulation for distances up to 200 feet 3. Bathroom privileges and self-care activities Rationale: On transfer from CCU to an intermediate care or general medical unit, the client is allowed self- care activities and bathroom privileges. Activities ad lib as tolerated is premature at this time and potentially harmful for this client. It is unnecessary and possibly harmful to limit the client to bed rest. The client should ambulate with supervision in the hall for brief distances, with the distances being gradually increased to 50, 100, and 200 feet. 47. A client with no history of heart disease has experienced acute myocardial infarction and has been given thrombolytic therapy with tissue plasminogen activator. What assessment finding should the nurse identify as the most likely indicator that the client is experiencing complications of this therapy? 1. Tarry stools 2. Nausea and vomiting 3. Orange-colored urine 4. Decreased urine output 1. Tarry stools Rationale: Thrombolytic agents are used to dissolve existing thrombi, and the nurse should monitor the client for obvious or occult signs of bleeding. This includes assessment for obvious bleeding within the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, urinary system, and skin. It also includes Hematest testing of secretions for occult blood. The correct option is the only one that indicates the presence of blood. 48. The nurse is discussing smoking cessation with a client diagnosed with coronary artery disease (CAD). Which statement should the nurse make to try to motivate the client to quit smoking? 1. "None of the cardiovascular effects are reversible, but quitting might prevent lung cancer." 2. "Because most of the damage has already been done, it will be all right to cut down a little at a time." 3. "If you totally quit smoking right now, you can cut your cardiovascular risk to zero within a year." 4. "If you quit now, your risk of cardiovascular disease will decrease to that of a nonsmoker in 3 to 4 years." 4. "If you quit now, your risk of cardiovascular disease will decrease to that of a nonsmoker in 3 to 4 years." Rationale: The risks to the cardiovascular system from smoking are noncumulative and are not permanent. Three to 4 years after cessation, a client's cardiovascular risk is similar to that of a person who never smoked. In addition, tobacco use and passive smoking from "secondhand smoke" (also called environmental smoke) substantially reduce blood flow in the coronary arteries. Options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect. 49. A client has experienced an episode of pulmonary edema. The nurse determines that the client's respiratory status is improving after this episode if which breath sounds are noted? 1. Rhonchi 2. Wheezes 3. Crackles in the bases 4. Crackles throughout the lung fields 3. Crackles in the bases Rationale: Pulmonary edema is characterized by extreme breathlessness, dyspnea, air hunger, and the production of frothy, pink-tinged sputum. As the client's condition improves, the amount of fluid in the alveoli decreases, which may be detected by crackles in the bases. (Clear lung sounds indicate full resolution of the episode.) Rhonchi and wheezes are not associated with pulmonary edema. Auscultation of the lungs reveals crackles throughout the lung fields. 50. A hospitalized client has been diagnosed with heart failure as a complication of hypertension. In explaining the disease process to the client, the nurse identifies which chamber of the heart as primarily responsible for the symptoms? 1. Left atrium 2. Right atrium 3. Left ventricle 4. Right ventricle 3. Left ventricle Rationale: Hypertension increases the workload of the left ventricle because the ventricle has to pump the stroke volume against increased resistance (afterload) in the major blood vessels. Over time this causes the left ventricle to fail, leading to signs and symptoms of heart failure. Options 1, 2, and 4 are not the chambers that are primarily responsible for this disease process although these chambers may become affected as the disease becomes more chronic. 51. A client has experienced a myocardial infarction. The nurse plans care for the client, knowing that the person's chest pain is caused by tissue hypoxia in which layer of the heart? 1. Myocardium 2. Endocardium 3. Parietal pericardium 4. Visceral pericardium 1. Myocardium 52. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of mitral stenosis. The narrowing of this valve will impede circulation of blood through which structures? 1. Left ventricle to aorta 2. Left atrium to left ventricle 3. Right atrium to right ventricle 4. Right ventricle to pulmonary artery 2. Left atrium to left ventricle Rationale: The mitral valve separates the left atrium from the left ventricle. Options 1, 3, and 4 describe the aortic, tricuspid, and pulmonic valves, respectively. 53. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of mitral stenosis. The narrowing of this valve will impede circulation of blood through which structures? 1. Left ventricle to aorta 2. Left atrium to left ventricle 3. Right atrium to right ventricle 4. Right ventricle to pulmonary artery 1. Left ventricle to aorta 54. A hospitalized client is experiencing a decrease in blood pressure. The nurse plans care for the client, knowing that this change will have which primary effect on his or her heart? 1. Decreased heart rate 2. Increased contractility 3. Decreased myocardial blood flow 4. Increased resistance to electrical stimulation 3. Decreased myocardial blood flow 55. A hospitalized client's serum calcium level is 7.9 mg/dL. The nurse is immediately concerned and takes action, knowing that this level could ultimately lead to which complication? 1. Stroke 2. Cardiac arrest 3. High blood pressure 4. Urinary stone formation 2. Cardiac arrest Rationale: The normal calcium level is 8.6 to 10 mg/dL. A low calcium level could lead to severe ventricular dysrhythmias, prolonged QT interval, and ultimately cardiac arrest. Calcium is needed by the heart for contraction. Calcium ions move across cell membranes into cardiac cells during depolarization and move back during repolarization. Depolarization is responsible for cardiac contraction. Options 1 and 3 are unrelated to calcium levels. Elevated calcium levels can lead to urinary stone formation. The nurse would take action and contact the health care provider when a calcium level is abnormal. 56. A nurse is reinforcing instructions to a hospitalized client with heart block about the fundamental concepts regarding the cardiac rhythm. The nurse explains to the client that the normal site in the heart responsible for initiating electrical impulses is which site? 1. Bundle of His 2. Purkinje fibers 3. Sinoatrial (SA) node 4. Atrioventricular (AV) node 3. Sinoatrial (SA) node 57. A nursing instructor asks a nursing student to describe the structure and function of the coronary arteries. Which response by the student indicates a need for further research on the anatomy and physiology of the heart? 1. "The coronary arteries branch from the aorta." 2. "The coronary arteries supply the heart muscle with blood." 3. "The left coronary artery provides blood for the left atrium and the left ventricle." 4. "The left coronary artery supplies the right atrium and right ventricle with blood." 4. "The left coronary artery supplies the right atrium and right ventricle with blood." Rationale: The left coronary artery divides into the anterior descending artery and the circumflex artery, providing blood for the left atrium and left ventricle. The right coronary artery supplies the right atrium and right ventricle. Options 1, 2, and 3 are correct. 58. A nurse is assigned to the care of a client with a cardiac disorder and is told that the client has an alteration in cardiac output. The nurse plans care with the understanding that the heart normally sends out how many liters of blood per minute to the body? 1. 2 L/min 2. 5 L/min 3. 10 L/min 4. 15 L/min 2. 5 L/min Rationale: The cardiac cycle consists of contraction and relaxation of the heart muscle. The heart normally sends out about 5 L of blood every minute to the body. Therefore, options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect. 59. A nurse is caring for a client who has lost a significant amount of blood as a result of complications of a surgical procedure. The nurse understands that which client assessment will provide the earliest indication of new decreases in fluid volume? 1. Pulse rate 2. Blood pressure (BP) 3. Assessment for edema 4. Lung auscultation for crackles 1. Pulse rate 60. A client who has been exercising in a gymnasium stops to measure his pulse and places his fingers over both carotid arteries simultaneously. A nurse exercising nearby is correct when the nurse cautions him to check the pulse on only one side, primarily for which reason? 1. It is unnecessary to use both hands. 2. The client could occlude the trachea. 3. The heart rate and blood pressure could drop. 4. Feeling dual pulsations may lead to an incorrect measurement. 3. The heart rate and blood pressure could drop. Rationale: Applying pressure to both carotid arteries at the same time is contraindicated. Excess pressure to the baroreceptors in the carotid vessels could cause the heart rate and blood pressure to drop reflexively. In addition, the manual pressure could interfere with the flow of blood to the brain, causing possible dizziness and syncope. Although the information in options 1, 2, and 4 may be correct, these are not the primary reasons. 61. A nursing student who is researching a medication at the nursing station asks the registered nurse (RN) what an α1-adrenergic receptor is. The RN responds by telling the student that these receptors are found primarily in which peripheral vascular structures and produce which actions? 1. The peripheral arteries and veins, and when stimulated cause vasoconstriction 2. Arterial and bronchial walls, and when stimulated cause vasodilation and bronchodilation 3. The heart, and when stimulated cause an increase in heart rate, atrioventricular (AV) node conduction, and contractility 4. Several tissues, and when stimulated cause contraction of smooth muscle, inhibition of lipolysis, and promotion of platelet aggregation 1. The peripheral arteries and veins, and when stimulated cause vasoconstriction Rationale: Found in the peripheral arteries and veins, α1-adrenergic receptors cause a powerful vasoconstriction when stimulated. Options 2, 3, and 4 describe β1-, β2-, and α2-adrenergic receptors, respectively. 62. A nurse who is auscultating a 56-year-old client's apical heart rate before administering digoxin (Lanoxin) notes that the heart rate is 52 beats/min. The nurse should make which interpretation about this information? 1. Normal, because of the client's age 2. Abnormal, requiring further assessment 3. Normal, as a result of the effects of digoxin 4. Normal, because this is the reason the client is receiving digoxin 2. Abnormal, requiring further assessment 63. A client who is beginning an exercise program asks the nurse why his heart "feels like it's pounding" when he is exercising vigorously. In formulating a response, the nurse understands that this effect occurs because of the client's primary need for which increased cardiac response? 1. Pulse rate 2. Cardiac index 3. Cardiac output 4. Stroke volume 3. Cardiac output Rationale: The client's symptoms are the direct result of the body's attempt to meet the metabolic demands generated during exercise. An adequate cardiac output is needed to maintain perfusion to the vital organs of the body. With exercise, these demands increase, and the heart must beat faster (increased heart rate) and harder (increased stroke volume) to meet them. Cardiac index is an artificial number used to determine the adequacy of the cardiac output for a given individual. It is calculated by adjusting the cardiac output for body surface area. 64. A nurse is listening to a cardiologist explain the results of a cardiac catheterization to a client and family. The health care provider (HCP) tells the client that a blockage is present in the large blood vessel that supplies the anterior wall of the left ventricle. The nurse determines that the HCP is referring to which arteries? 1. Circumflex coronary artery 2. Right coronary artery (RCA) 3. Posterior descending coronary artery (PDA) 4. Left anterior descending coronary artery (LAD) 4. Left anterior descending coronary artery (LAD) Rationale: The LAD bifurcates from the left main coronary artery to supply the anterior wall of the left ventricle and a few other structures. The circumflex coronary artery bifurcates from the left coronary artery and supplies the left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle. The RCA supplies the right side of the heart, including the right atrium and right ventricle. The PDA supplies the posterior wall of the heart. 65. A nurse is assigned to the care of a client hospitalized with a diagnosis of hypothermia. The nurse anticipates that the client will exhibit which findings on assessment of vital signs? 1. Increased heart rate and increased blood pressure 2. Increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure 3. Decreased heart rate and increased blood pressure 4. Decreased heart rate and decreased blood pressure 4. Decreased heart rate and decreased blood pressure Rationale: Hypothermia decreases the heart rate and the blood pressure because the metabolic needs of the body are reduced in this condition. With fewer metabolic needs, the workload of the heart decreases, resulting in decreased heart rate and blood pressure. Therefore, options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect. 66. A client who has had a myocardial infarction asks the nurse why she should not bear down or strain to ensure having a bowel movement. The nurse's response incorporates the information that bearing down or straining would trigger which physical response? 1. Vagus nerve stimulation, causing a decrease in heart rate and cardiac contractility 2. Vagus nerve stimulation, causing an increase in heart rate and cardiac contractility 3. Sympathetic nerve stimulation, causing an increase in heart rate and cardiac contractility 4. Sympathetic nerve stimulation, causing a decrease in heart rate and cardiac contractility 1. Vagus nerve stimulation, causing a decrease in heart rate and cardiac contractility 67. A client with iron deficiency anemia complains of feeling fatigued almost all of the time. The nurse should respond with which statement? 1. "The work of breathing is increased when the client is anemic." 2. "Blood flows more slowly when the hemoglobin or hematocrit is low." 3. "The body has to work harder to fight infection in the presence of anemia." 4. "Adequate amounts of hemoglobin are needed to carry oxygen for tissue metabolism." 4. "Adequate amounts of hemoglobin are needed to carry oxygen for tissue metabolism." 68. Which laboratory test results may be associated with peaked or tall, tented T waves on a client's electrocardiogram (ECG)? 1. Chloride level of 98 mEq/L 2. Sodium level of 135 mEq/L 3. Potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L 4. Magnesium level of 1.6 mEq/L 3. Potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L 69. A client recovering from an exacerbation of left-sided heart failure is experiencing activity intolerance. Which change in vital signs during activity would be the best indicator that the client is tolerating mild exercise? 1. Oxygen saturation decreased from 96% to 91%. 2. Pulse rate increased from 80 to 104 beats per minute. 3. Blood pressure decreased from 140/86 to 112/72 mm Hg. 4. Respiratory rate increased from 16 to 19 breaths per minute. 4. Respiratory rate increased from 16 to 19 breaths per minute. 70. A client is being discharged from the hospital after being treated for infective endocarditis. The nurse should provide the client with which discharge instruction? 1. Take antibiotics until the chest pain is fully resolved. 2. Take acetaminophen (Tylenol) if the chest pain worsens. 3. Use a firm-bristle toothbrush and floss vigorously to prevent cavities. 4. Notify all health care providers (HCP) of the history of infective endocarditis before any invasive procedures. 4. Notify all health care providers (HCP) of the history of infective endocarditis before any invasive procedures. Rationale: The client should alert any HCP about the history of infective endocarditis before any procedure that involves instrumentation. The HCP should place the client on prophylactic antibiotics if an invasive procedure is needed. Antibiotics should be taken for the full course of therapy. The client should notify the HCP if chest pain worsens or if dyspnea or other symptoms occur. The client should use a soft toothbrush and floss carefully to avoid any trauma to the gums, which could provide a portal of entry for bacterial infection. 71. The nurse is concerned about the adequacy of peripheral tissue perfusion in the post–cardiac surgery client. Which action should the nurse include within the plan of care for this client? 1. Use the knee-gatch on the bed. 2. Cover the legs lightly when sitting in a chair. 3. Encourage the client to cross legs when sitting in a chair. 4. Provide pillows for the client to place under the knees as desired. 2. Cover the legs lightly when sitting in a chair. Rationale: Covering the legs with a light blanket during sitting promotes warmth and vasodilation of the leg vessels. The nurse plans postoperative measures to prevent venous stasis. These include applying elastic stockings or leg wraps, use of pneumatic compression boots, and discouraging leg-crossing. Clients should be encouraged to perform passive and active range of motion exercises. The knee gatch on the bed and pillows under the knees should be avoided because it places pressure on the blood vessels in the popliteal area, impeding venous return. 72. The nurse is instructing the post–cardiac surgery client about activity limitations for the first 6 weeks after hospital discharge. The nurse should include which item in the instructions? 1. Driving is permitted so long as the lap and shoulder seat belts are worn. 2. Lifting should be restricted to objects that do not weigh more than 25 pounds. 3. Use the arms for balance, not weight support, when getting out of bed or a chair. 4. Activities that involve straining may be resumed so long as they do not cause pain. 3. Use the arms for balance, not weight support, when getting out of bed or a chair. 73. The nurse is assessing an electrocardiogram (ECG) rhythm strip for a client. The P waves and QRS complexes are regular. The PR interval is 0.14 second, and the QRS complexes measure 0.08 second. The overall heart rate is 82 beats/min. The nurse interprets the cardiac rhythm to be which rhythm? 1. Sinus bradycardia 2. Sick sinus syndrome 3. Normal sinus rhythm 4. First-degree heart block 3. Normal sinus rhythm Rationale: Normal sinus rhythm is defined as a regular rhythm with an overall rate of 60 to 100 beats/min. The PR and QRS measurements are normal, measuring 0.12 to 0.20 second and 0.04 to 0.10 second, respectively. 74. A client's electrocardiogram (ECG) strip shows atrial and ventricular rates of 70 complexes/min. The PR interval is 0.16 second, the QRS complex measures 0.06 second, and the PP interval is slightly irregular. How should the nurse interpret this rhythm? 1. Sinus tachycardia 2. Sinus dysrhythmia 3. Sinus bradycardia 4. Normal sinus rhythm 2. Sinus dysrhythmia 75. The nurse is watching the cardiac monitor and notices that the rhythm suddenly changes. No P waves or QRS complexes are seen; instead, the monitor screen shows an irregular wavy line. The nurse interprets that the client is experiencing which rhythm? 1. Sinus tachycardia 2. Ventricular fibrillation 3. Ventricular tachycardia 4. Premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) 2. Ventricular fibrillation Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation is characterized by the absence of P waves and QRS complexes. The rhythm is instantly recognizable by the presence of coarse or fine fibrillatory waves on the cardiac monitoring screen. Sinus tachycardia has a recognizable P wave and QRS. Ventricular tachycardia is a regular pattern of wide QRS complexes. PVCs appear as irregular beats within a rhythm. Each of the incorrect options has a recognizable complex that appears on the monitoring screen. 76. A client with myocardial infarction is experiencing new, multiform premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). Knowing that the client is allergic to lidocaine hydrochloride, the nurse plans to have which medication available for immediate use? 1. Procainamide 2. Digoxin (Lanoxin) 3. Verapamil (Calan SR) 4. Metoprolol (Lopressor) 1. Procainamide Rationale: Procainamide is an antidysrhythmic that may be used to treat ventricular dysrhythmias in clients who are allergic to lidocaine. Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside; verapamil is a calcium- channel blocking agent; metoprolol is a β-adrenergic blocking agent. 77. A client has received antidysrhythmic therapy for the treatment of premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). The nurse evaluates this therapy as most effective if the client's PVCs continued to exhibit which finding? 1. Occur in pairs 2. Appear to be multifocal 3. Fall on the second half of the T wave 4. Decrease to a frequency of less than 6 per minute 4. Decrease to a frequency of less than 6 per minute Rationale: PVCs are considered dangerous when they are frequent (more than 6 per minute), occur in pairs or couplets, are multifocal (multiform), or fall on the T wave. In each of these instances, the client's cardiac rhythm is likely to degenerate into ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation, both of which are potentially deadly dysrhythmias. 78. The nurse is assessing the client's condition after cardioversion. Which observation should be of highest priority to the nurse? 1. Blood pressure 2. Status of airway 3. Oxygen flow rate 4. Level of consciousness 2. Status of airway Rationale: Nursing responsibilities after cardioversion include maintenance of a patent airway, oxygen administration, assessment of vital signs and level of consciousness, and dysrhythmia detection. Airway, however, is always the highest priority. 79. The home health nurse makes a home visit to a client who has an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) and reviews the instructions concerning pacemakers and dysrhythmias with the client. Which client statement indicates that further teaching is necessary? 1. "If I feel an internal defibrillator shock, I should sit down." 2. "I won't be able to have a magnetic resonance imaging test (MRI)." 3. "My wife knows how to call the emergency medical services (EMS) if I need it." 4. "I can stop taking my antidysrhythmic medicine now because I have a pacemaker." 4. "I can stop taking my antidysrhythmic medicine now because I have a pacemaker." Rationale: Clients with an ICD usually continue to receive antidysrhythmic medications after discharge from the hospital. The nurse should stress the importance of continuing to take these medications as prescribed. The nurse should provide clear instructions about the purposes of the medications, dosage schedule, and side effects or adverse effects to report. Clients should sit down if they feel an internal defibrillator shock. They cannot have an MRI because of the possible magnetic properties of the device. Also knowledge of how to reach EMS is important. 80. A client with a complete heart block has had a permanent demand ventricular pacemaker inserted. The nurse assesses for proper pacemaker function by examining the electrocardiogram (ECG) strip for the presence of pacemaker spikes at what point? 1. Before each P wave 2. Just after each P wave 3. Just after each T wave 4. Before each QRS complex 4. Before each QRS complex Rationale: If a ventricular pacemaker is functioning properly, there will be a pacer spike followed by a QRS complex. An atrial pacemaker spike precedes a P wave if an atrial pacemaker is implanted. A demand pacemaker fires only when needed and should therefore discharge only when no electrical activity is occurring in the client's own heart. 81. A client complains of calf tenderness, and thrombophlebitis is suspected. The nurse should next assess the client for which finding? 1. Bilateral edema 2. Increased calf circumference 3. Diminished distal peripheral pulses 4. Coolness and pallor of the affected limb 2. Increased calf circumference 82. The nurse is planning care for a client with deep vein thrombosis of the right leg. Which interventions would the nurse plan, based on the health care provider's prescriptions?Select all that apply. 1. Elevation of the right leg 2. Ambulation in the hall every 4 hours 3. Application of moist heat to the right leg 4. Administration of acetaminophen (Tylenol) 5. Monitoring for signs of pulmonary embolism o 1. Elevation of the right leg o 3. Application of moist heat to the right leg o 4. Administration of acetaminophen (Tylenol) o 5. Monitoring for signs of pulmonary embolism 83. A client has been diagnosed with thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger's disease). The nurse is identifying measures to help the client cope with lifestyle changes needed to control the disease process. The nurse plans to refer the client to which member of the health care team? 1. Dietitian 2. Medical social worker 3. Pain management clinic 4. Smoking-cessation program 4. Smoking-cessation program 84. The home health nurse is visiting a client who has had a prosthetic valve replacement for severe mitral valve stenosis. Which statement by the client reflects an understanding of specific postoperative care after this surgery? 1. "I need to count my pulse every day." 2. "I have to do deep breathing exercises every 2 hours." 3. "I threw away my straight razor and bought an electric razor." 4. "I have to go to the bathroom frequently because of my medication." 3. "I threw away my straight razor and bought an electric razor." Rationale: Prosthetic valves require long-term anticoagulation to prevent clots from forming on the "foreign" tissue implanted in the client's body. Anticoagulation therapy requires clients to avoid any trauma or potential means of causing bleeding, such as the use of straight razors. Counting pulse, deep breathing exercises, and going to the bathroom frequently are not specifically related to postoperative care after prosthetic valve replacement. 85. The nurse is planning to teach a client with peripheral arterial disease about measures to limit disease progression. Which items should the nurse include on a list of suggestions for the client? Select all that apply. 1. Soak the feet in hot water daily. 2. Be careful not to injure the legs or feet. 3. Use a heating pad on the legs to aid vasodilation. 4. Walk each day to increase circulation to the legs. 5. Cut down on the amount of fats consumed in the diet. o 2. Be careful not to injure the legs or feet. o 4. Walk each day to increase circulation to the legs. o 5. Cut down on the amount of fats consumed in the diet. 86. The home health nurse visits a client recovering from cardiogenic shock secondary to an anterior myocardial infarction and provides home care instructions to the client. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of these home care measures? 1. "I exercise every day after breakfast." 2. "I've gained 8 pounds since discharge." 3. "I take an antacid when I experience epigastric pain." 4. "I have planned periods of rest at 10:00 am and 3:00 pm daily." 4. "I have planned periods of rest at 10:00 am and 3:00 pm daily." Rationale: The client recovering from cardiogenic shock secondary to a myocardial infarction will require a progressive rehabilitation related to physical activity. The heart requires several months to heal from an uncomplicated myocardial infarction. The complication of cardiogenic shock increases the recovery period for healing. Paced activities with planned rest periods will decrease the chance of experiencing angina or delayed healing. It is best to allow the meal to settle prior to activity in order to improve circulation to the heart during exercise. Epigastric pain or a weight gain of 8 pounds is significant and should be reported to the health care provider, at which point follow-up should occur. 87. A client who had coronary artery bypass surgery states to the home health nurse: "get so frustrated. I can't even do my gardening." The nurse then assesses the client for activity level since the surgery. Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching? 1. "I pace my activities throughout the day." 2. "I plan regular rest periods during the day." 3. "I avoid outdoor physical activity during the heat of the day." 4. "I try to walk immediately after lunch, after I've finished my morning housecleaning." 4. "I try to walk immediately after lunch, after I've finished my morning housecleaning." 88. The nurse notes that a client's cardiac rhythm shows absent P waves and no PR interval. How should the nurse interpret this rhythm? 1. Bradycardia 2. Tachycardia 3. Atrial fibrillation 4. Normal sinus rhythm (NSR) 3. Atrial fibrillation Rationale: In atrial fibrillation, the P waves may be absent. There is no PR interval, and the QRS duration usually is normal and constant. Bradycardia is a slowed heart rate, and tachycardia is a fast heart rate. In NSR a P wave precedes each QRS complex, the rhythm is essentially regular, the PR interval is 0.12 to 0.20 seconds in duration, and the QRS interval is 0.06 to 0.10 seconds in duration. 89. The nurse is assigned the care of a client with a diagnosis of heart failure who is receiving intravenous doses of furosemide (Lasix). The client is attached to cardiac telemetry, and the n