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NURS 6512: ADVANCED HEALTH ASSESSMENT 2026/2027 | 100% VERIFIED EXAM QUESTIONS & ANSWERS | LATEST WALDEN & WGU VERSION | GRADED A+

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NURS 6512: ADVANCED HEALTH ASSESSMENT 2026/2027 | 100% VERIFIED EXAM QUESTIONS & ANSWERS | LATEST WALDEN & WGU VERSION | GRADED A+

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NURS 6512: ADVANCED HEALTH ASSESSMENT
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NURS 6512: ADVANCED HEALTH ASSESSMENT

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NURS 6512: ADVANCED HEALTH ASSESSMENT 2026/2027 | 100%
VERIFIED EXAM QUESTIONS & ANSWERS | LATEST WALDEN & WGU
VERSION | GRADED A+




Q1. What are the four types of health assessments? ANSWER Emergency,
comprehensive, focused, and ongoing/follow-up assessments.
Q2. What is the difference between subjective and objective data?
ANSWER Subjective data is what the patient reports (symptoms, feelings);
objective data is what the clinician observes or measures (signs, vital signs,
physical findings).
Q3. What does the mnemonic OLDCART stand for in symptom analysis?
ANSWER Onset, Location, Duration, Characteristics, Aggravating/Alleviating
factors, Related symptoms, Treatment/Timing.
Q4. What are the four techniques of physical examination in order of
performance? ANSWER Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
(except for abdominal assessment: inspection, auscultation, percussion,
palpation).
Q5. Why is auscultation performed before percussion and palpation in
abdominal assessment? ANSWER Because percussion and palpation can
alter bowel sounds, leading to inaccurate findings.
Q6. What is the purpose of the review of systems (ROS)? ANSWER To
identify symptoms or concerns the patient may have forgotten to mention and to
screen for diseases in other body systems.
Q7. What are the components of a health history? ANSWER Biographical
data, chief complaint, history of present illness, past medical history,
medications/allergies, family history, social history, review of systems.
Q8. What is the difference between open-ended and closed-ended
questions? ANSWER Open-ended questions allow patients to respond in their
own words (used to begin interviews); closed-ended questions require specific
answers (used to clarify details).

,Q9. What are the stages of the clinical interview? ANSWER Pre-interview
(review chart), introduction, working phase (gathering data), termination.
Q10. What is active listening? ANSWER Fully concentrating on what is
being said, using verbal and non-verbal cues to show understanding, and
providing appropriate feedback.
Q11. What is therapeutic communication? ANSWER Patient-centered
communication that promotes understanding, reduces anxiety, and builds trust.
Q12. What are the barriers to effective communication? ANSWER Using
medical jargon, interrupting, appearing rushed, false reassurance, giving advice
too quickly, cultural insensitivity.
Q13. What is cultural competence in health assessment? ANSWER The
ability to understand, respect, and respond to cultural differences in healthcare
beliefs and practices.
Q14. What is the LEARN model for cultural negotiation? ANSWER
Listen, Explain, Acknowledge, Recommend, Negotiate.
Q15. What information should be included in the chief complaint?
ANSWER The patient's primary reason for seeking care, in their own words,
usually including duration.
Q16. What is the difference between signs and symptoms? ANSWER
Signs are objective findings observed by the examiner; symptoms are subjective
experiences reported by the patient.
Q17. What are the characteristics of a well-written SOAP note? ANSWER
Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan—concise, accurate, timely, and legally
sound.
Q18. What is the difference between primary and secondary data?
ANSWER Primary data comes directly from the patient; secondary data comes
from family members, charts, or other sources.
Q19. What is the purpose of the COLDSPA mnemonic? ANSWER
Character, Onset, Location, Duration, Severity, Pattern, Associated factors—
alternative to OLDCART for symptom analysis.
Q20. What are the types of touch used in palpation? ANSWER Light
palpation (1 cm depth), deep palpation (4 cm depth), bimanual palpation,
ballottement.

, Q21. What are the five types of percussion sounds and their
characteristics? ANSWER Resonant (normal lung), hyperresonant
(emphysema), tympanic (gastric air bubble), dull (liver, heart), flat (bone,
muscle).
Q22. What is the diurnal variation in body temperature? ANSWER
Temperature is lowest in the early morning (4-6 AM) and highest in late
afternoon/early evening (4-6 PM).
Q23. What are the four vital signs? ANSWER Temperature, pulse,
respirations, blood pressure (pain is often considered the fifth vital sign).
Q24. What is the normal range for adult oral temperature? ANSWER
36.0°C to 37.5°C (96.8°F to 99.5°F); average is 37°C (98.6°F).
Q25. What factors can affect blood pressure readings? ANSWER Cuff
size, body position, arm position, recent activity, smoking, caffeine, stress,
medications, time of day.
Q26. What is the proper cuff size for blood pressure measurement?
ANSWER The bladder should encircle 80% of the arm circumference; width
should be 40% of arm circumference.
Q27. What is orthostatic hypotension and how is it assessed? ANSWER A
drop in systolic BP ≥20 mmHg or diastolic BP ≥10 mmHg within 3 minutes of
standing; assess BP in supine, sitting, and standing positions.
Q28. What are the normal respiratory rates for adults? ANSWER 12-20
breaths per minute.
Q29. What is the difference between pulse deficit and paradoxical pulse?
ANSWER Pulse deficit is the difference between apical and radial rates (seen
in atrial fibrillation); paradoxical pulse is an exaggerated decrease in systolic BP
during inspiration (seen in cardiac tamponade, severe asthma).
Q30. What is the proper technique for measuring oxygen saturation?
ANSWER Use pulse oximeter on finger, toe, or earlobe; ensure proper
perfusion; remove nail polish; compare with respiratory assessment.


SECTION 2: INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM (Questions 31-55)
Q31. What are the layers of the skin? ANSWER Epidermis (outer), dermis
(middle), subcutaneous tissue/hypodermis (inner).

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