BIOL 252 | BIOL252 Final Exam: Human Anatomy
& Physiology II with Lab Updated and Latest
Questions and Correct Answers with Rationale -
Portage Learning
1. A patient presents with high blood glucose and increased thirst. Which pancreatic cell type
is most likely failing to produce its hormone in Type 1 Diabetes?
A. Alpha cells
B. Beta cells
C. Delta cells
D. Gamma cells
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Beta cells are responsible for secreting insulin into the bloodstream. Insulin
is necessary to facilitate the uptake of glucose by body cells for energy. In Type 1 Diabetes,
these cells are destroyed by an autoimmune response. Without insulin, blood glucose levels
remain dangerously high while cells lack fuel. This physiological failure leads to the
symptoms of polyuria and polydipsia seen in the clinic.
2. During the cardiac cycle, which event occurs immediately after the QRS complex on an
EKG?
A. Ventricular contraction
B. Atrial repolarization
C. Atrial depolarization
D. Ventricular filling
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The QRS complex represents the electrical depolarization of the ventricular
myocardium. This electrical event triggers the mechanical contraction known as
ventricular systole. During this phase, pressure rises rapidly within the heart chambers to
eject blood. Atrial repolarization also occurs at this time but is masked by the large QRS
wave. Understanding this timing is crucial for diagnosing conduction abnormalities in
patients.
3. Which hormone is primarily responsible for the stimulation of red blood cell production in
response to low oxygen levels?
A. Epinephrine
B. Erythropoietin
,C. Cortisol
D. Thyroxine
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Erythropoietin is a glycoprotein hormone produced mainly by the kidneys. It
targets red bone marrow to stimulate the process of erythropoiesis. Production increases
when the kidneys detect a drop in blood oxygen carrying capacity. This negative feedback
loop ensures the body maintains adequate oxygen delivery to tissues. Athletes sometimes
abuse synthetic versions to enhance performance through increased aerobic capacity.
4. In the nephron, where does the majority of water and nutrient reabsorption occur?
A. Glomerulus
B. Proximal convoluted tubule
C. Distal convoluted tubule
D. Collecting duct
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The proximal convoluted tubule is lined with microvilli to increase surface
area for absorption. Approximately 65 percent of filtrate volume is reclaimed in this
specific segment. It actively reabsorbs glucose, amino acids, and essential ions from the
filtrate. Water follows these solutes passively through the process of osmosis. Damage to
this area significantly impairs the kidney’s ability to maintain fluid balance.
5. Which of the following describes the ‘Bohr Effect’ regarding respiratory physiology?
A. High oxygen levels increase hemoglobin affinity for CO2.
B. Low pH decreases hemoglobin affinity for oxygen.
C. High CO2 levels decrease the rate of breathing.
D. Low temperature increases the release of oxygen.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Bohr Effect describes how hydrogen ions and carbon dioxide affect
hemoglobin’s oxygen binding. As blood pH drops, the hemoglobin molecule changes shape
slightly to release oxygen more easily. This is beneficial in metabolically active tissues
where CO2 and acid are high. It ensures that hard-working muscles receive the oxygen they
need during exercise. This mechanism is a key component of efficient internal respiration.
6. A patient has a tumor on their parathyroid gland causing hypersecretion. What would be
the expected finding in their blood work?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypocalcemia
, C. Hyponatremia
D. Hyperkalemia
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The parathyroid glands secrete parathyroid hormone which regulates blood
calcium levels. PTH increases calcium by stimulating osteoclast activity and enhancing
intestinal absorption. It also reduces calcium excretion by the kidneys to conserve the
mineral. A hypersecreting tumor leads to excessively high levels of calcium in the blood.
This condition can result in weakened bones and the formation of kidney stones.
7. Which enzyme is responsible for the initial chemical digestion of starches in the oral cavity?
A. Pepsin
B. Lingual lipase
C. Trypsin
D. Salivary amylase
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Salivary amylase is secreted by the salivary glands during the act of chewing.
It begins breaking down complex carbohydrates into smaller polysaccharides and maltose.
This process continues until the food reaches the acidic environment of the stomach. Once
in the stomach, the low pH denatures the amylase enzyme. Most starch digestion is
eventually completed in the small intestine by pancreatic enzymes.
8. Which type of immunoglobulin is the most abundant in the blood and can cross the
placenta?
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgG
D. IgE
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: IgG is the main antibody class found in blood and extracellular fluid. It
provides long-term immunity after an initial exposure or vaccination. It is the only
antibody capable of crossing the placental barrier to protect the fetus. This passive
immunity is vital for the newborn during the first few months of life. IgG effectively
neutralizes toxins and marks pathogens for destruction by other immune cells.
9. During the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle, which hormone triggers the LH surge?
A. Progesterone
B. Estrogen
& Physiology II with Lab Updated and Latest
Questions and Correct Answers with Rationale -
Portage Learning
1. A patient presents with high blood glucose and increased thirst. Which pancreatic cell type
is most likely failing to produce its hormone in Type 1 Diabetes?
A. Alpha cells
B. Beta cells
C. Delta cells
D. Gamma cells
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Beta cells are responsible for secreting insulin into the bloodstream. Insulin
is necessary to facilitate the uptake of glucose by body cells for energy. In Type 1 Diabetes,
these cells are destroyed by an autoimmune response. Without insulin, blood glucose levels
remain dangerously high while cells lack fuel. This physiological failure leads to the
symptoms of polyuria and polydipsia seen in the clinic.
2. During the cardiac cycle, which event occurs immediately after the QRS complex on an
EKG?
A. Ventricular contraction
B. Atrial repolarization
C. Atrial depolarization
D. Ventricular filling
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The QRS complex represents the electrical depolarization of the ventricular
myocardium. This electrical event triggers the mechanical contraction known as
ventricular systole. During this phase, pressure rises rapidly within the heart chambers to
eject blood. Atrial repolarization also occurs at this time but is masked by the large QRS
wave. Understanding this timing is crucial for diagnosing conduction abnormalities in
patients.
3. Which hormone is primarily responsible for the stimulation of red blood cell production in
response to low oxygen levels?
A. Epinephrine
B. Erythropoietin
,C. Cortisol
D. Thyroxine
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Erythropoietin is a glycoprotein hormone produced mainly by the kidneys. It
targets red bone marrow to stimulate the process of erythropoiesis. Production increases
when the kidneys detect a drop in blood oxygen carrying capacity. This negative feedback
loop ensures the body maintains adequate oxygen delivery to tissues. Athletes sometimes
abuse synthetic versions to enhance performance through increased aerobic capacity.
4. In the nephron, where does the majority of water and nutrient reabsorption occur?
A. Glomerulus
B. Proximal convoluted tubule
C. Distal convoluted tubule
D. Collecting duct
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The proximal convoluted tubule is lined with microvilli to increase surface
area for absorption. Approximately 65 percent of filtrate volume is reclaimed in this
specific segment. It actively reabsorbs glucose, amino acids, and essential ions from the
filtrate. Water follows these solutes passively through the process of osmosis. Damage to
this area significantly impairs the kidney’s ability to maintain fluid balance.
5. Which of the following describes the ‘Bohr Effect’ regarding respiratory physiology?
A. High oxygen levels increase hemoglobin affinity for CO2.
B. Low pH decreases hemoglobin affinity for oxygen.
C. High CO2 levels decrease the rate of breathing.
D. Low temperature increases the release of oxygen.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Bohr Effect describes how hydrogen ions and carbon dioxide affect
hemoglobin’s oxygen binding. As blood pH drops, the hemoglobin molecule changes shape
slightly to release oxygen more easily. This is beneficial in metabolically active tissues
where CO2 and acid are high. It ensures that hard-working muscles receive the oxygen they
need during exercise. This mechanism is a key component of efficient internal respiration.
6. A patient has a tumor on their parathyroid gland causing hypersecretion. What would be
the expected finding in their blood work?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypocalcemia
, C. Hyponatremia
D. Hyperkalemia
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The parathyroid glands secrete parathyroid hormone which regulates blood
calcium levels. PTH increases calcium by stimulating osteoclast activity and enhancing
intestinal absorption. It also reduces calcium excretion by the kidneys to conserve the
mineral. A hypersecreting tumor leads to excessively high levels of calcium in the blood.
This condition can result in weakened bones and the formation of kidney stones.
7. Which enzyme is responsible for the initial chemical digestion of starches in the oral cavity?
A. Pepsin
B. Lingual lipase
C. Trypsin
D. Salivary amylase
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Salivary amylase is secreted by the salivary glands during the act of chewing.
It begins breaking down complex carbohydrates into smaller polysaccharides and maltose.
This process continues until the food reaches the acidic environment of the stomach. Once
in the stomach, the low pH denatures the amylase enzyme. Most starch digestion is
eventually completed in the small intestine by pancreatic enzymes.
8. Which type of immunoglobulin is the most abundant in the blood and can cross the
placenta?
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgG
D. IgE
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: IgG is the main antibody class found in blood and extracellular fluid. It
provides long-term immunity after an initial exposure or vaccination. It is the only
antibody capable of crossing the placental barrier to protect the fetus. This passive
immunity is vital for the newborn during the first few months of life. IgG effectively
neutralizes toxins and marks pathogens for destruction by other immune cells.
9. During the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle, which hormone triggers the LH surge?
A. Progesterone
B. Estrogen
