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BSC 2086 | BSC2086 Exam 4: Anatomy and Physiology II Updated and Latest Questions and Correct Answers with Rationale - Florida State University

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BSC 2086 | BSC2086 Exam 4: Anatomy and Physiology II Updated and Latest Questions and Correct Answers with Rationale - Florida State University

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BSC 2086 | BSC2086 Exam 4: Anatomy and
Physiology II Updated and Latest Questions and
Correct Answers with Rationale - Florida State
University
1. A 28-year-old female presents with a surge in Luteinizing Hormone (LH) during her
menstrual cycle. Which of the following events is directly triggered by this specific hormonal
peak?
A. The degeneration of the corpus luteum into the corpus albicans

B. The initial development of primary follicles

C. The completion of meiosis I and the occurrence of ovulation

D. The thickening of the stratum functionalis in the uterus
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The LH surge is a critical mid-cycle event triggered by high levels of estrogen
from the mature follicle. This surge causes the primary oocyte to finish its first meiotic
division and become a secondary oocyte. It also stimulates the release of enzymes that
weaken the follicular wall, leading to ovulation. Following this release, the follicle
transitions into the corpus luteum to support potential pregnancy. Without this peak, the
reproductive cycle would halt before the possibility of fertilization occurs.

2. Which cell type is responsible for presenting endogenous antigens on MHC Class I
molecules to initiate a cytotoxic T-cell response?
A. Only professional antigen-presenting cells like macrophages

B. Erythrocytes during a systemic infection

C. B-lymphocytes specifically in the lymph nodes

D. All nucleated cells in the human body

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: MHC Class I molecules are found on all nucleated cells to signal the internal
health of the cell to the immune system. When a cell is infected by a virus, it processes viral
proteins and displays them on its surface via MHC I. Cytotoxic T-cells (CD8+) recognize
these foreign peptides and initiate apoptosis in the infected cell. This mechanism is vital for
identifying and destroying cancerous or virally compromised cells throughout the body.
Mature red blood cells lack these molecules because they do not have a nucleus for protein
synthesis.

,3. A patient is diagnosed with Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS), characterized by elevated
androgens and insulin resistance. How does this condition typically affect the hypothalamic-
pituitary-ovarian axis?
A. Increased FSH levels leading to multiple successful ovulations

B. Abnormal GnRH pulses causing high LH and suppressed FSH

C. Low levels of LH resulting in thin endometrial lining

D. Complete cessation of estrogen production in the ovaries
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: PCOS often involves a dysfunction in the frequency of GnRH pulses from the
hypothalamus. High pulse frequency favors the production of LH over FSH by the anterior
pituitary gland. The resulting high LH levels stimulate theca cells to produce excessive
androgens rather than facilitating ovulation. Meanwhile, low FSH prevents the proper
maturation of follicles, leading to the characteristic cysts on the ovaries. This hormonal
imbalance disrupts the normal feedback loops required for a regular menstrual cycle.

4. During the process of spermatogenesis, which cells are responsible for forming the blood-
testis barrier and providing nourishment to developing sperm?
A. Leydig cells

B. Spermatogonia

C. Sertoli cells

D. Interstitial endocrine cells

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Sertoli cells, also known as sustentacular cells, play a structural and
functional role within the seminiferous tubules. They create tight junctions that form the
blood-testis barrier to protect developing sperm from the immune system. These cells also
secrete inhibin to regulate FSH levels through negative feedback mechanisms. Additionally,
they provide the essential nutrients and signaling molecules needed for germ cell
differentiation. Without Sertoli cells, spermatogenesis would be impossible due to
autoimmune attacks on the haploid sperm.

5. A patient suffers a severe bee sting and develops systemic vasodilation and
bronchoconstriction. Which immune mediator is primarily responsible for this Type I
hypersensitivity reaction?
A. Histamine released from IgE-sensitized mast cells

B. Interferon-gamma from Helper T-cells

C. Perforins and granzymes from Natural Killer cells

D. Complement proteins forming the MAC complex

, Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Type I hypersensitivity occurs when an allergen binds to IgE antibodies
already fixed to the surface of mast cells. This binding causes degranulation, which releases
large amounts of histamine into the local or systemic environment. Histamine increases
vascular permeability and causes smooth muscle contraction in the respiratory tract. These
physiological changes lead to the characteristic swelling, redness, and difficulty breathing
seen in anaphylaxis. Immediate medical intervention is required to counteract these
systemic effects and maintain homeostasis.

6. What is the primary function of the hormone Inhibin in both males and females?
A. Selectively inhibiting FSH secretion from the anterior pituitary

B. Directly inhibiting the secretion of LH from the pituitary

C. Stimulating the release of GnRH from the hypothalamus

D. Promoting the proliferation of the uterine lining

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Inhibin is a hormone produced by Sertoli cells in males and granulosa cells in
females. Its main role is to provide negative feedback specifically to the anterior pituitary
regarding FSH production. By reducing FSH, the body can control the rate of
spermatogenesis or the number of maturing follicles in the ovaries. This feedback loop
ensures that reproductive processes do not become overactive or dysregulated. Unlike
other steroids, inhibin’s effect is highly specific to the gonadotropins, particularly follicle-
stimulating hormone.

7. How does the immune system differentiate between a ‘self’ cell and a ‘non-self’ cell during
the maturation of T-lymphocytes in the thymus?
A. By checking for the presence of hemoglobin on the cell surface

B. Through the process of positive and negative selection
C. Through the secretion of antibodies into the thymic medulla

D. By exposing cells to toxins produced by the spleen
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: T-lymphocyte maturation involves a rigorous two-step screening process
within the thymus. Positive selection ensures that T-cells can recognize the body’s own
MHC molecules to function correctly. Negative selection removes T-cells that bind too
strongly to self-antigens, preventing autoimmune responses. Cells that fail either test
undergo programmed cell death to protect the organism from internal damage. This results
in a pool of mature T-cells that are both self-MHC restricted and self-tolerant. This
mechanism is fundamental to the adaptive immune system’s ability to maintain systemic
safety.

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