NR 324 Adult Health II - Exam 6 Comprehensive Study Guide 2026
|Chamberlain College
1. A patient is in the compensatory stage of shock. Which clinical manifestation
should the nurse expect to observe?
A. Increased respiratory rate
B. Decreased heart rate
C. Cold, clammy skin
D. Profound hypotension
Answer: A
Rationale: In the compensatory stage of shock, the body attempts to maintain
homeostasis. Increased respiratory rate occurs as the body tries to increase oxygenation
and compensate for metabolic acidosis.
2. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of neurogenic shock
following a spinal cord injury?
A. Bradycardia and hypotension
B. Tachycardia and hypertension
C. Fever and shivering
D. Cool, pale extremities
Answer: A
Rationale: Neurogenic shock results from the loss of sympathetic tone, leading to
vasodilation (hypotension) and a lack of compensatory tachycardia, often resulting in
bradycardia.
,3. A patient with septic shock is receiving large amounts of IV fluids. Which
assessment is the best indicator of adequate tissue perfusion?
A. Oxygen saturation of 92%
B. Heart rate of 110 bpm
C. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 65 mmHg
D. Skin temperature of 98.6F
Answer: C
Rationale: A MAP of at least 65 mmHg is generally considered the minimum pressure
necessary to ensure adequate perfusion to vital organs in patients with shock.
4. The nurse is caring for a patient with Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
(ARDS). What is the primary pathophysiology behind refractory hypoxemia in
this condition?
A. Bronchoconstriction of the small airways
B. Damage to the alveolar-capillary membrane and fluid shunting
C. Increased pulmonary artery pressure from emboli
D. Decreased chest wall compliance due to pain
Answer: B
Rationale: ARDS involves damage to the alveolar-capillary membrane, leading to non-
cardiogenic pulmonary edema and shunting, where blood passes through the lungs without
being oxygenated.
5. A patient on a mechanical ventilator has a low-pressure alarm sounding.
Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Check for a disconnection in the ventilator circuit
B. Suction the patient’s airway
C. Increase the oxygen concentration (FiO2)
D. Administer a sedative to the patient
Answer: A
, Rationale: Low-pressure alarms are typically triggered by a leak in the system or a
disconnection of the tubing from the patient or the machine.
6. Which medication is considered the first-line treatment for anaphylactic
shock?
A. Epinephrine
B. Methylprednisolone
C. Diphenhydramine
D. Albuterol
Answer: A
Rationale: Epinephrine is the drug of choice for anaphylaxis because it causes peripheral
vasoconstriction, bronchodilation, and suppresses inflammatory mediator release.
7. A patient with a T4 spinal cord injury reports a sudden, severe headache and
has a blood pressure of 190/100 mmHg. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Administer ordered PRN antihypertensives
B. Check the patient’s bladder for distention
C. Lower the head of the bed to a flat position
D. Perform a neurological assessment
Answer: B
Rationale: These are signs of autonomic dysreflexia. The priority is to elevate the head of
the bed and then identify/remove the noxious stimulus, commonly a full bladder or
impacted bowel.
|Chamberlain College
1. A patient is in the compensatory stage of shock. Which clinical manifestation
should the nurse expect to observe?
A. Increased respiratory rate
B. Decreased heart rate
C. Cold, clammy skin
D. Profound hypotension
Answer: A
Rationale: In the compensatory stage of shock, the body attempts to maintain
homeostasis. Increased respiratory rate occurs as the body tries to increase oxygenation
and compensate for metabolic acidosis.
2. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of neurogenic shock
following a spinal cord injury?
A. Bradycardia and hypotension
B. Tachycardia and hypertension
C. Fever and shivering
D. Cool, pale extremities
Answer: A
Rationale: Neurogenic shock results from the loss of sympathetic tone, leading to
vasodilation (hypotension) and a lack of compensatory tachycardia, often resulting in
bradycardia.
,3. A patient with septic shock is receiving large amounts of IV fluids. Which
assessment is the best indicator of adequate tissue perfusion?
A. Oxygen saturation of 92%
B. Heart rate of 110 bpm
C. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 65 mmHg
D. Skin temperature of 98.6F
Answer: C
Rationale: A MAP of at least 65 mmHg is generally considered the minimum pressure
necessary to ensure adequate perfusion to vital organs in patients with shock.
4. The nurse is caring for a patient with Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
(ARDS). What is the primary pathophysiology behind refractory hypoxemia in
this condition?
A. Bronchoconstriction of the small airways
B. Damage to the alveolar-capillary membrane and fluid shunting
C. Increased pulmonary artery pressure from emboli
D. Decreased chest wall compliance due to pain
Answer: B
Rationale: ARDS involves damage to the alveolar-capillary membrane, leading to non-
cardiogenic pulmonary edema and shunting, where blood passes through the lungs without
being oxygenated.
5. A patient on a mechanical ventilator has a low-pressure alarm sounding.
Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Check for a disconnection in the ventilator circuit
B. Suction the patient’s airway
C. Increase the oxygen concentration (FiO2)
D. Administer a sedative to the patient
Answer: A
, Rationale: Low-pressure alarms are typically triggered by a leak in the system or a
disconnection of the tubing from the patient or the machine.
6. Which medication is considered the first-line treatment for anaphylactic
shock?
A. Epinephrine
B. Methylprednisolone
C. Diphenhydramine
D. Albuterol
Answer: A
Rationale: Epinephrine is the drug of choice for anaphylaxis because it causes peripheral
vasoconstriction, bronchodilation, and suppresses inflammatory mediator release.
7. A patient with a T4 spinal cord injury reports a sudden, severe headache and
has a blood pressure of 190/100 mmHg. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Administer ordered PRN antihypertensives
B. Check the patient’s bladder for distention
C. Lower the head of the bed to a flat position
D. Perform a neurological assessment
Answer: B
Rationale: These are signs of autonomic dysreflexia. The priority is to elevate the head of
the bed and then identify/remove the noxious stimulus, commonly a full bladder or
impacted bowel.
