NR 324 Adult Health II Exam 2 Practice 2026 |Chamberlain College
1. A patient with atrial fibrillation is at high risk for which of the following
complications?
A. Ischemic stroke
B. Pulmonary hypertension
C. Ventricular hypertrophy
D. Cardiac tamponade
Answer: A
Rationale: In atrial fibrillation, blood stasis in the atria can lead to clot formation, which
may embolize to the brain, causing an ischemic stroke.
2. What is the normal duration of the PR interval on an ECG?
A. 0.04 to 0.10 seconds
B. 0.20 to 0.30 seconds
C. 0.12 to 0.20 seconds
D. 0.06 to 0.12 seconds
Answer: C
Rationale: The PR interval represents the time from atrial depolarization to the start of
ventricular depolarization and is normally 0.12 to 0.20 seconds.
3. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of left-sided heart failure?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Jugular venous distention
C. Crackles in the lungs
D. Splenomegaly
Answer: C
,Rationale: Left-sided heart failure leads to pulmonary congestion, resulting in symptoms
like dyspnea and crackles due to fluid in the alveoli.
4. A patient is prescribed Digoxin. Which symptom should the nurse monitor for
as a sign of toxicity?
A. Yellow-green halos around lights
B. Increased appetite
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Rapid weight gain
Answer: A
Rationale: Visual disturbances, such as yellow-green halos or blurred vision, are classic
signs of digoxin toxicity along with nausea and bradycardia.
5. When a patient presents with sudden crushing chest pain, which intervention
should be prioritized?
A. Administering a dose of morphine
B. Drawing blood for cardiac enzymes
C. Obtaining a 12-lead ECG
D. Providing a light meal
Answer: C
Rationale: An ECG is the priority to determine the type of myocardial infarction (STEMI
vs. NSTEMI) and guide immediate treatment.
6. Which instruction should be included for a patient with Peripheral Arterial
Disease (PAD)?
A. Keep the legs elevated above the heart
B. Walk until pain occurs, rest, and then continue
C. Apply heating pads to the feet to improve flow
D. Wear tight-fitting stockings to support veins
Answer: B
, Rationale: Exercise therapy for PAD involves walking to the point of claudication, resting,
and repeating to encourage collateral circulation.
7. What is the therapeutic laboratory goal for a patient on Warfarin therapy?
A. aPTT 1.5 to 2.5 times the control
B. INR between 2.0 and 3.0
C. Platelet count > 150,000
D. Hgb > 12 g/dL
Answer: B
Rationale: The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is used to monitor Warfarin, with a
typical target range of 2.0 to 3.0 for most conditions.
8. Which medication is the designated antidote for Heparin?
A. Vitamin K
B. Flumazenil
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Glucagon
Answer: C
Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the specific agent used to reverse the effects of heparin in
cases of overdose or bleeding.
9. A patient is eligible for tPA following an ischemic stroke if the symptoms
started within what timeframe?
A. Within 12 hours
B. Within 1 hour
C. Within 24 hours
D. Within 3 to 4.5 hours
Answer: D
Rationale: tPA (tissue plasminogen activator) must be administered within a 3 to 4.5-hour
window from the ‘last known well’ time for ischemic stroke.
1. A patient with atrial fibrillation is at high risk for which of the following
complications?
A. Ischemic stroke
B. Pulmonary hypertension
C. Ventricular hypertrophy
D. Cardiac tamponade
Answer: A
Rationale: In atrial fibrillation, blood stasis in the atria can lead to clot formation, which
may embolize to the brain, causing an ischemic stroke.
2. What is the normal duration of the PR interval on an ECG?
A. 0.04 to 0.10 seconds
B. 0.20 to 0.30 seconds
C. 0.12 to 0.20 seconds
D. 0.06 to 0.12 seconds
Answer: C
Rationale: The PR interval represents the time from atrial depolarization to the start of
ventricular depolarization and is normally 0.12 to 0.20 seconds.
3. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of left-sided heart failure?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Jugular venous distention
C. Crackles in the lungs
D. Splenomegaly
Answer: C
,Rationale: Left-sided heart failure leads to pulmonary congestion, resulting in symptoms
like dyspnea and crackles due to fluid in the alveoli.
4. A patient is prescribed Digoxin. Which symptom should the nurse monitor for
as a sign of toxicity?
A. Yellow-green halos around lights
B. Increased appetite
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Rapid weight gain
Answer: A
Rationale: Visual disturbances, such as yellow-green halos or blurred vision, are classic
signs of digoxin toxicity along with nausea and bradycardia.
5. When a patient presents with sudden crushing chest pain, which intervention
should be prioritized?
A. Administering a dose of morphine
B. Drawing blood for cardiac enzymes
C. Obtaining a 12-lead ECG
D. Providing a light meal
Answer: C
Rationale: An ECG is the priority to determine the type of myocardial infarction (STEMI
vs. NSTEMI) and guide immediate treatment.
6. Which instruction should be included for a patient with Peripheral Arterial
Disease (PAD)?
A. Keep the legs elevated above the heart
B. Walk until pain occurs, rest, and then continue
C. Apply heating pads to the feet to improve flow
D. Wear tight-fitting stockings to support veins
Answer: B
, Rationale: Exercise therapy for PAD involves walking to the point of claudication, resting,
and repeating to encourage collateral circulation.
7. What is the therapeutic laboratory goal for a patient on Warfarin therapy?
A. aPTT 1.5 to 2.5 times the control
B. INR between 2.0 and 3.0
C. Platelet count > 150,000
D. Hgb > 12 g/dL
Answer: B
Rationale: The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is used to monitor Warfarin, with a
typical target range of 2.0 to 3.0 for most conditions.
8. Which medication is the designated antidote for Heparin?
A. Vitamin K
B. Flumazenil
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Glucagon
Answer: C
Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the specific agent used to reverse the effects of heparin in
cases of overdose or bleeding.
9. A patient is eligible for tPA following an ischemic stroke if the symptoms
started within what timeframe?
A. Within 12 hours
B. Within 1 hour
C. Within 24 hours
D. Within 3 to 4.5 hours
Answer: D
Rationale: tPA (tissue plasminogen activator) must be administered within a 3 to 4.5-hour
window from the ‘last known well’ time for ischemic stroke.
