NR 324 Adult Health II Exam 7 Study Guide 2026 |Chamberlain College
1. A nurse is caring for a patient who suddenly develops supraventricular
tachycardia (SVT). What is the priority nursing intervention if the patient is
symptomatic?
A. Begin chest compressions.
B. Perform immediate unsynchronized defibrillation.
C. Administer IV Adenosine rapidly over 1 to 2 seconds.
D. Administer oral Digoxin.
Answer: C
Rationale: Adenosine is the drug of choice for SVT because it slows conduction through the
AV node. It must be administered rapidly followed by a saline flush due to its short half-life.
2. When evaluating an ECG for a patient with Atrial Fibrillation (AFib), which
characteristic should the nurse expect to find?
A. Absence of P waves and an irregular rhythm.
B. Presence of a saw-tooth pattern.
C. A regular R-R interval.
D. A PR interval greater than 0.20 seconds.
Answer: A
Rationale: AFib is characterized by the absence of distinct P waves (replaced by chaotic
fibrillatory waves) and an irregularly irregular ventricular response.
,3. A patient is in Ventricular Fibrillation (VFib). Which action should the nurse
take first?
A. Administer Epinephrine 1mg IV.
B. Assess the patient’s blood pressure.
C. Prepare for synchronized cardioversion.
D. Perform immediate defibrillation.
Answer: D
Rationale: Defibrillation is the most effective treatment for VFib and pulseless Ventricular
Tachycardia. The earlier it is performed, the better the outcome.
4. A nurse observes a pacemaker spike on the ECG monitor, but it is not
followed by a QRS complex. This is known as:
A. Failure to capture.
B. Failure to sense.
C. Failure to pace.
D. Normal pacemaker function.
Answer: A
Rationale: Failure to capture occurs when the pacemaker delivers an electrical stimulus
but the heart muscle does not respond with a contraction (no QRS seen after the spike).
5. What is the primary goal of PEEP (Positive End-Expiratory Pressure) in a
patient with ARDS?
A. To increase the fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2).
B. To prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia.
C. To decrease the work of breathing during weaning.
D. To keep the alveoli open and improve oxygenation.
Answer: D
Rationale: PEEP maintains positive pressure in the airways at the end of expiration to
recruit collapsed alveoli and improve gas exchange in patients with ARDS.
, 6. A high-pressure alarm sounds on a patient’s mechanical ventilator. Which of
the following is a potential cause?
A. The ventilator tubing has a leak.
B. The patient has become disconnected.
C. The cuff on the endotracheal tube is deflated.
D. The patient is biting the endotracheal tube.
Answer: D
Rationale: High-pressure alarms are triggered by increased resistance, such as secretions,
coughing, kinking of the tube, or the patient biting the tube.
7. When suctioning an endotracheal tube, what is the maximum duration for
each suction pass?
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 to 15 seconds
C. 20 to 30 seconds
D. 1 minute
Answer: B
Rationale: Suctioning should be limited to 10-15 seconds to prevent hypoxia and vagal
stimulation which can lead to bradycardia.
8. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has a serum potassium level of
6.8 mEq/L. Which medication is the priority to stabilize the cardiac membrane?
A. Sodium Polystyrene Sulfonate (Kayexalate).
B. Regular Insulin and Dextrose.
C. Calcium Gluconate IV.
D. Furosemide (Lasix).
Answer: C
Rationale: While other medications lower potassium, Calcium Gluconate is the priority to
protect the heart from life-threatening arrhythmias caused by hyperkalemia.
1. A nurse is caring for a patient who suddenly develops supraventricular
tachycardia (SVT). What is the priority nursing intervention if the patient is
symptomatic?
A. Begin chest compressions.
B. Perform immediate unsynchronized defibrillation.
C. Administer IV Adenosine rapidly over 1 to 2 seconds.
D. Administer oral Digoxin.
Answer: C
Rationale: Adenosine is the drug of choice for SVT because it slows conduction through the
AV node. It must be administered rapidly followed by a saline flush due to its short half-life.
2. When evaluating an ECG for a patient with Atrial Fibrillation (AFib), which
characteristic should the nurse expect to find?
A. Absence of P waves and an irregular rhythm.
B. Presence of a saw-tooth pattern.
C. A regular R-R interval.
D. A PR interval greater than 0.20 seconds.
Answer: A
Rationale: AFib is characterized by the absence of distinct P waves (replaced by chaotic
fibrillatory waves) and an irregularly irregular ventricular response.
,3. A patient is in Ventricular Fibrillation (VFib). Which action should the nurse
take first?
A. Administer Epinephrine 1mg IV.
B. Assess the patient’s blood pressure.
C. Prepare for synchronized cardioversion.
D. Perform immediate defibrillation.
Answer: D
Rationale: Defibrillation is the most effective treatment for VFib and pulseless Ventricular
Tachycardia. The earlier it is performed, the better the outcome.
4. A nurse observes a pacemaker spike on the ECG monitor, but it is not
followed by a QRS complex. This is known as:
A. Failure to capture.
B. Failure to sense.
C. Failure to pace.
D. Normal pacemaker function.
Answer: A
Rationale: Failure to capture occurs when the pacemaker delivers an electrical stimulus
but the heart muscle does not respond with a contraction (no QRS seen after the spike).
5. What is the primary goal of PEEP (Positive End-Expiratory Pressure) in a
patient with ARDS?
A. To increase the fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2).
B. To prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia.
C. To decrease the work of breathing during weaning.
D. To keep the alveoli open and improve oxygenation.
Answer: D
Rationale: PEEP maintains positive pressure in the airways at the end of expiration to
recruit collapsed alveoli and improve gas exchange in patients with ARDS.
, 6. A high-pressure alarm sounds on a patient’s mechanical ventilator. Which of
the following is a potential cause?
A. The ventilator tubing has a leak.
B. The patient has become disconnected.
C. The cuff on the endotracheal tube is deflated.
D. The patient is biting the endotracheal tube.
Answer: D
Rationale: High-pressure alarms are triggered by increased resistance, such as secretions,
coughing, kinking of the tube, or the patient biting the tube.
7. When suctioning an endotracheal tube, what is the maximum duration for
each suction pass?
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 to 15 seconds
C. 20 to 30 seconds
D. 1 minute
Answer: B
Rationale: Suctioning should be limited to 10-15 seconds to prevent hypoxia and vagal
stimulation which can lead to bradycardia.
8. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has a serum potassium level of
6.8 mEq/L. Which medication is the priority to stabilize the cardiac membrane?
A. Sodium Polystyrene Sulfonate (Kayexalate).
B. Regular Insulin and Dextrose.
C. Calcium Gluconate IV.
D. Furosemide (Lasix).
Answer: C
Rationale: While other medications lower potassium, Calcium Gluconate is the priority to
protect the heart from life-threatening arrhythmias caused by hyperkalemia.
