NR 324 Adult Health II Final Exam Practice Questions 2026
|Chamberlain College
1. A client with left-sided heart failure is being assessed. Which clinical
manifestation should the nurse expect to find?
A. Jugular venous distention
B. Crackles in the lungs
C. Splenomegaly
D. Peripheral edema
Answer: B
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes blood to back up into the pulmonary circulation,
leading to pulmonary congestion and crackles. The other options are signs of right-sided
heart failure.
2. An arterial blood gas (ABG) report shows: pH 7.30, PaCO2 52 mmHg, and
HCO3 24 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these results?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Respiratory acidosis
Answer: D
Rationale: A pH below 7.35 indicates acidosis. A PaCO2 above 45 mmHg with a normal
HCO3 indicates that the cause is respiratory.
,3. Which medication is the priority for a patient with a serum potassium level of
6.8 mEq/L and ECG changes?
A. Oral Kayexalate
B. Spironolactone
C. IV Calcium Gluconate
D. Furosemide
Answer: C
Rationale: IV Calcium Gluconate is the priority to stabilize the myocardium and prevent
lethal dysrhythmias in severe hyperkalemia.
4. A client is admitted with Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA). Which breathing
pattern does the nurse expect to observe?
A. Kussmaul respirations
B. Apneustic breathing
C. Bradypnea
D. Cheyne-Stokes respiration
Answer: A
Rationale: Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid breaths that the body uses to blow off
excess CO2 to compensate for metabolic acidosis.
5. What is the most appropriate position for a client with increased intracranial
pressure (ICP)?
A. Head of bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees
B. Prone
C. Trendelenburg
D. Supine with legs elevated
Answer: A
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed promotes venous drainage from the brain, which
helps reduce intracranial pressure.
, 6. A client is in the compensatory stage of hypovolemic shock. Which finding
should the nurse anticipate?
A. Increased heart rate
B. Decreased respiratory rate
C. Increased urinary output
D. Vasodilation and flushing
Answer: A
Rationale: In the compensatory stage, the sympathetic nervous system is activated,
resulting in tachycardia to maintain cardiac output.
7. A client with cirrhosis and hepatic encephalopathy is prescribed lactulose.
What is the primary goal of this medication?
A. To reduce serum ammonia levels
B. To decrease serum potassium
C. To reduce abdominal girth
D. To improve digestion of fats
Answer: A
Rationale: Lactulose promotes the excretion of ammonia through the stool, which helps
improve neurological status in hepatic encephalopathy.
8. When treating a client in septic shock, what is the goal Central Venous
Pressure (CVP) according to surviving sepsis guidelines?
A. 0 to 2 mmHg
B. 8 to 12 mmHg
C. 20 to 25 mmHg
D. 3 to 5 mmHg
Answer: B
Rationale: A CVP of 8-12 mmHg is often targeted during fluid resuscitation in sepsis to
ensure adequate volume status.
|Chamberlain College
1. A client with left-sided heart failure is being assessed. Which clinical
manifestation should the nurse expect to find?
A. Jugular venous distention
B. Crackles in the lungs
C. Splenomegaly
D. Peripheral edema
Answer: B
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes blood to back up into the pulmonary circulation,
leading to pulmonary congestion and crackles. The other options are signs of right-sided
heart failure.
2. An arterial blood gas (ABG) report shows: pH 7.30, PaCO2 52 mmHg, and
HCO3 24 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these results?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Respiratory acidosis
Answer: D
Rationale: A pH below 7.35 indicates acidosis. A PaCO2 above 45 mmHg with a normal
HCO3 indicates that the cause is respiratory.
,3. Which medication is the priority for a patient with a serum potassium level of
6.8 mEq/L and ECG changes?
A. Oral Kayexalate
B. Spironolactone
C. IV Calcium Gluconate
D. Furosemide
Answer: C
Rationale: IV Calcium Gluconate is the priority to stabilize the myocardium and prevent
lethal dysrhythmias in severe hyperkalemia.
4. A client is admitted with Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA). Which breathing
pattern does the nurse expect to observe?
A. Kussmaul respirations
B. Apneustic breathing
C. Bradypnea
D. Cheyne-Stokes respiration
Answer: A
Rationale: Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid breaths that the body uses to blow off
excess CO2 to compensate for metabolic acidosis.
5. What is the most appropriate position for a client with increased intracranial
pressure (ICP)?
A. Head of bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees
B. Prone
C. Trendelenburg
D. Supine with legs elevated
Answer: A
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed promotes venous drainage from the brain, which
helps reduce intracranial pressure.
, 6. A client is in the compensatory stage of hypovolemic shock. Which finding
should the nurse anticipate?
A. Increased heart rate
B. Decreased respiratory rate
C. Increased urinary output
D. Vasodilation and flushing
Answer: A
Rationale: In the compensatory stage, the sympathetic nervous system is activated,
resulting in tachycardia to maintain cardiac output.
7. A client with cirrhosis and hepatic encephalopathy is prescribed lactulose.
What is the primary goal of this medication?
A. To reduce serum ammonia levels
B. To decrease serum potassium
C. To reduce abdominal girth
D. To improve digestion of fats
Answer: A
Rationale: Lactulose promotes the excretion of ammonia through the stool, which helps
improve neurological status in hepatic encephalopathy.
8. When treating a client in septic shock, what is the goal Central Venous
Pressure (CVP) according to surviving sepsis guidelines?
A. 0 to 2 mmHg
B. 8 to 12 mmHg
C. 20 to 25 mmHg
D. 3 to 5 mmHg
Answer: B
Rationale: A CVP of 8-12 mmHg is often targeted during fluid resuscitation in sepsis to
ensure adequate volume status.
