NSG 6440 Final Predictor Exam Top 50 Concepts (2025-2026) | Verified
A+ Graded Review
Master the most frequently tested topics on the NSG 6440 Predictor Exam with this
targeted "Top 50" high-yield study script updated for the 2026 curriculum. This guide
provides rapid-fire answers and clinical rationales for essential primary care subjects,
including HIV monitoring, pediatric milestones, and geriatric pharmacology. Perfect for
last-minute cramming or a final knowledge check, this document ensures you grasp the
critical diagnostic criteria needed to secure an A+ on your South University final.
1. A 35-year-old patient presents with a "burning" sensation in the eye, blurred
vision, and a dendritic lesion seen on fluorescein staining. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Bacterial Keratitis
B) Herpes Simplex Keratitis
C) Corneal Abrasion
D) Allergic Conjunctivitis
*Answer: B) Herpes Simplex Keratitis *
Rationale: The presence of a "dendritic" (branch-like) lesion on the cornea is
pathognomonic for Herpes Simplex virus infection and requires urgent ophthalmology
referral.
2. Which antibiotic is the first-line recommendation for a patient with Acute Otitis
Media who has a confirmed Type I (Anaphylactic) Penicillin allergy?
A) Cephalexin
B) Azithromycin or Clarithromycin
C) Cefdinir
D) Augmentin
*Answer: B) Azithromycin or Clarithromycin *
,Rationale: In cases of Type I hypersensitivity (hives, wheezing, anaphylaxis) to PCN,
macrolides are used. If the allergy was non-anaphylactic, a cephalosporin could be
considered.
3. A patient presents with a "painless" lump on the eyelid that has developed
slowly over weeks. It is non-tender and firm. This is most likely a:
A) Hordeolum
B) Chalazion
C) Blepharitis
D) Dacryocystitis
*Answer: B) Chalazion *
Rationale: A chalazion is a chronic, painless granuloma of a Meibomian gland. A
hordeolum (stye) is acute and painful.
4. According to the Centor Criteria, which of the following scores warrants
immediate empirical antibiotic treatment for Strep Throat without testing?
A) 0-1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4 or more
*Answer: D) 4 or more *
Rationale: A score of 4 or more suggests a high probability of Group A Strep, and
empirical treatment may be considered (though many clinicians still prefer to test).
5. Which medication is the preferred "preventative" treatment for a patient with
frequent Migraine headaches?
A) Sumatriptan
B) Propranolol
C) Ibuprofen
D) Ergotamine
*Answer: B) Propranolol *
Rationale: Beta-blockers like Propranolol are first-line for migraine prophylaxis. Triptans
are used for acute abortive therapy, not prevention.
,6. A patient with COPD has an FEV1 of 45% predicted. According to the GOLD
criteria, what is their airflow limitation severity?
A) GOLD 1 (Mild)
B) GOLD 2 (Moderate)
C) GOLD 3 (Severe)
D) GOLD 4 (Very Severe)
*Answer: C) GOLD 3 (Severe) *
Rationale: GOLD 3 is defined as an FEV1 between 30% and 49% predicted.
7. Which medication is contraindicated for a patient with a history of Sulfa
allergy?
A) Nitrofurantoin
B) Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Amoxicillin
*Answer: B) Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) *
Rationale: Bactrim contains a sulfonamide component and must be avoided in patients
with sulfa allergies.
8. A 19-year-old college student presents with a severe sore throat, significant
fatigue, and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Strep Pharyngitis
B) Infectious Mononucleosis
C) Influenza
D) Peritonsillar Abscess
*Answer: B) Infectious Mononucleosis *
Rationale: Posterior cervical adenopathy and profound fatigue are hallmark signs of
Mono (Epstein-Barr Virus).
9. What is the "Step 2" preferred treatment for Asthma in adults according to GINA
guidelines?
, A) SABA as needed
B) Low-dose Inhaled Corticosteroid (ICS) taken whenever SABA is taken
C) Daily low-dose ICS plus PRN SABA
D) Long-acting Beta-Agonist (LABA) monotherapy
*Answer: C) Daily low-dose ICS plus PRN SABA *
Rationale: Maintenance low-dose ICS is the standard for Step 2 to control the underlying
inflammation.
10. A patient presents with "pitting" edema, JVD, and a "pansystolic" murmur at
the lower left sternal border. This suggests:
A) Mitral Regurgitation
B) Tricuspid Regurgitation
C) Aortic Stenosis
D) Mitral Valve Prolapse
*Answer: B) Tricuspid Regurgitation *
Rationale: Tricuspid regurgitation is heard at the left lower sternal border and is often
associated with signs of right-sided heart failure like JVD and edema.
11. A "Positive Phalen’s maneuver" produces paresthesia in which fingers?
A) 4th and 5th (Pinky and half of Ring)
B) 1st, 2nd, 3rd, and half of 4th (Thumb, Index, Middle)
C) All five fingers
D) Only the Thumb
*Answer: B) 1st, 2nd, 3rd, and half of 4th (Thumb, Index, Middle) *
Rationale: These are the areas innervated by the Median nerve, which is compressed in
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome.
12. What is the first-line treatment for an uncomplicated bite from a human or
animal?
A) Cephalexin
B) Amoxicillin-Clavulanate (Augmentin)
C) Doxycycline
D) Clindamycin
A+ Graded Review
Master the most frequently tested topics on the NSG 6440 Predictor Exam with this
targeted "Top 50" high-yield study script updated for the 2026 curriculum. This guide
provides rapid-fire answers and clinical rationales for essential primary care subjects,
including HIV monitoring, pediatric milestones, and geriatric pharmacology. Perfect for
last-minute cramming or a final knowledge check, this document ensures you grasp the
critical diagnostic criteria needed to secure an A+ on your South University final.
1. A 35-year-old patient presents with a "burning" sensation in the eye, blurred
vision, and a dendritic lesion seen on fluorescein staining. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Bacterial Keratitis
B) Herpes Simplex Keratitis
C) Corneal Abrasion
D) Allergic Conjunctivitis
*Answer: B) Herpes Simplex Keratitis *
Rationale: The presence of a "dendritic" (branch-like) lesion on the cornea is
pathognomonic for Herpes Simplex virus infection and requires urgent ophthalmology
referral.
2. Which antibiotic is the first-line recommendation for a patient with Acute Otitis
Media who has a confirmed Type I (Anaphylactic) Penicillin allergy?
A) Cephalexin
B) Azithromycin or Clarithromycin
C) Cefdinir
D) Augmentin
*Answer: B) Azithromycin or Clarithromycin *
,Rationale: In cases of Type I hypersensitivity (hives, wheezing, anaphylaxis) to PCN,
macrolides are used. If the allergy was non-anaphylactic, a cephalosporin could be
considered.
3. A patient presents with a "painless" lump on the eyelid that has developed
slowly over weeks. It is non-tender and firm. This is most likely a:
A) Hordeolum
B) Chalazion
C) Blepharitis
D) Dacryocystitis
*Answer: B) Chalazion *
Rationale: A chalazion is a chronic, painless granuloma of a Meibomian gland. A
hordeolum (stye) is acute and painful.
4. According to the Centor Criteria, which of the following scores warrants
immediate empirical antibiotic treatment for Strep Throat without testing?
A) 0-1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4 or more
*Answer: D) 4 or more *
Rationale: A score of 4 or more suggests a high probability of Group A Strep, and
empirical treatment may be considered (though many clinicians still prefer to test).
5. Which medication is the preferred "preventative" treatment for a patient with
frequent Migraine headaches?
A) Sumatriptan
B) Propranolol
C) Ibuprofen
D) Ergotamine
*Answer: B) Propranolol *
Rationale: Beta-blockers like Propranolol are first-line for migraine prophylaxis. Triptans
are used for acute abortive therapy, not prevention.
,6. A patient with COPD has an FEV1 of 45% predicted. According to the GOLD
criteria, what is their airflow limitation severity?
A) GOLD 1 (Mild)
B) GOLD 2 (Moderate)
C) GOLD 3 (Severe)
D) GOLD 4 (Very Severe)
*Answer: C) GOLD 3 (Severe) *
Rationale: GOLD 3 is defined as an FEV1 between 30% and 49% predicted.
7. Which medication is contraindicated for a patient with a history of Sulfa
allergy?
A) Nitrofurantoin
B) Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Amoxicillin
*Answer: B) Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) *
Rationale: Bactrim contains a sulfonamide component and must be avoided in patients
with sulfa allergies.
8. A 19-year-old college student presents with a severe sore throat, significant
fatigue, and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Strep Pharyngitis
B) Infectious Mononucleosis
C) Influenza
D) Peritonsillar Abscess
*Answer: B) Infectious Mononucleosis *
Rationale: Posterior cervical adenopathy and profound fatigue are hallmark signs of
Mono (Epstein-Barr Virus).
9. What is the "Step 2" preferred treatment for Asthma in adults according to GINA
guidelines?
, A) SABA as needed
B) Low-dose Inhaled Corticosteroid (ICS) taken whenever SABA is taken
C) Daily low-dose ICS plus PRN SABA
D) Long-acting Beta-Agonist (LABA) monotherapy
*Answer: C) Daily low-dose ICS plus PRN SABA *
Rationale: Maintenance low-dose ICS is the standard for Step 2 to control the underlying
inflammation.
10. A patient presents with "pitting" edema, JVD, and a "pansystolic" murmur at
the lower left sternal border. This suggests:
A) Mitral Regurgitation
B) Tricuspid Regurgitation
C) Aortic Stenosis
D) Mitral Valve Prolapse
*Answer: B) Tricuspid Regurgitation *
Rationale: Tricuspid regurgitation is heard at the left lower sternal border and is often
associated with signs of right-sided heart failure like JVD and edema.
11. A "Positive Phalen’s maneuver" produces paresthesia in which fingers?
A) 4th and 5th (Pinky and half of Ring)
B) 1st, 2nd, 3rd, and half of 4th (Thumb, Index, Middle)
C) All five fingers
D) Only the Thumb
*Answer: B) 1st, 2nd, 3rd, and half of 4th (Thumb, Index, Middle) *
Rationale: These are the areas innervated by the Median nerve, which is compressed in
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome.
12. What is the first-line treatment for an uncomplicated bite from a human or
animal?
A) Cephalexin
B) Amoxicillin-Clavulanate (Augmentin)
C) Doxycycline
D) Clindamycin
