NSG 6440 Final Predictor Exam "Top 50" Concepts (2024-2026) |
Verified A+ Graded Review
Master the most frequently tested topics on the NSG 6440 Predictor Exam with this
targeted "Top 50" high-yield study script updated for the 2026 curriculum. This guide
provides rapid-fire answers and clinical rationales for essential primary care subjects,
including HIV monitoring, pediatric milestones, and geriatric pharmacology. Perfect for
last-minute cramming or a final knowledge check, this document ensures you grasp the
critical diagnostic criteria needed to secure an A+ on your South University final.
1. A 2-year-old presents with a 2-day history of ear pain and fever (
). Exam shows a bulging, opaque tympanic membrane with decreased mobility.
What is the first-line antibiotic treatment?
A) Azithromycin 10 mg/kg
B) Amoxicillin 80-90 mg/kg/day
C) Cephalexin 50 mg/kg/day
D) Augmentin 45 mg/kg/day
*Answer: B) Amoxicillin 80-90 mg/kg/day *
Rationale: High-dose Amoxicillin is the first-line treatment for uncomplicated acute otitis
media (AOM) in children without a recent history of antibiotic use.
2. Which finding on a funduscopic exam is most characteristic of chronic Primary
Open-Angle Glaucoma?
A) AV nicking and cotton wool spots
B) Increased cup-to-disc ratio (> 0.5)
C) Macular drusen
D) Flame-shaped hemorrhages
*Answer: B) Increased cup-to-disc ratio (> 0.5) *
,Rationale: Glaucoma causes "cupping" of the optic nerve head as intraocular pressure
damages the nerve fibers.
3. A patient presents with sudden onset of severe eye pain, blurred vision, and
"halos" around lights. The pupil is mid-dilated and fixed. What is the immediate
priority?
A) Prescribe antibiotic drops
B) Perform a fluorescein stain
C) Immediate referral to Ophthalmology or ER
D) Prescribe topical corticosteroids
*Answer: C) Immediate referral to Ophthalmology or ER *
Rationale: These are classic signs of Acute Angle-Closure Glaucoma, a medical
emergency that can lead to permanent blindness within hours.
4. A 24-year-old male complains of bilateral eye itching and rope-like, stringy
discharge. This is most consistent with:
A) Bacterial conjunctivitis
B) Viral conjunctivitis
C) Allergic conjunctivitis
D) Chlamydial conjunctivitis
*Answer: C) Allergic conjunctivitis *
Rationale: Intense itching and stringy/watery discharge are hallmarks of allergic eye
disease, usually occurring bilaterally.
5. According to the Centor Criteria, which of the following increases the likelihood
of Group A Beta-Hemolytic Strep pharyngitis?
A) Presence of a cough
B) Absence of a cough
C) Low-grade fever
D) Rhinorrhea
*Answer: B) Absence of a cough *
Rationale: The absence of a cough, presence of tonsillar exudates, fever, and tender
anterior cervical lymphadenopathy are the four Centor criteria.
,6. A patient with Strep Pharyngitis has a history of a non-anaphylactic rash when
taking Penicillin. Which antibiotic is a safe alternative?
A) Amoxicillin
B) Cephalexin (Keflex)
C) Augmentin
D) Ampicillin
*Answer: B) Cephalexin (Keflex) *
Rationale: Patients with Type II (non-anaphylactic) Penicillin allergies can safely take
first-generation cephalosporins.
7. A 60-year-old smoker presents with persistent hoarseness for 6 weeks. What is
the next step in management?
A) Trial of Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPI)
B) 10-day course of Amoxicillin
) Referral to ENT for laryngoscopy
D) Voice rest and hydration
*Answer: C) Referral to ENT for laryngoscopy *
Rationale: Any hoarseness lasting more than 3-4 weeks, especially in a smoker, must be
evaluated to rule out laryngeal cancer.
8. What is the "gold standard" for diagnosing a corneal abrasion?
A) Visual acuity test
B) Slit lamp exam
C) Fluorescein staining with Wood's lamp
D) Tonometry
*Answer: C) Fluorescein staining with Wood's lamp *
Rationale: Fluorescein dye uptake identifies defects in the corneal epithelium, which
glow green under cobalt blue light.
9. A patient is diagnosed with Acute Bacterial Rhinosinusitis (ABRS). Symptoms
have persisted for 10 days without improvement. What is the recommended first-
line antibiotic?
, A) Azithromycin
B) Amoxicillin-Clavulanate (Augmentin)
C) Doxycycline
D) Levofloxacin
*Answer: B) Amoxicillin-Clavulanate (Augmentin) *
Rationale: IDSA guidelines recommend Augmentin over Amoxicillin for ABRS to cover
for resistant H. influenzae.
10. "Honey-colored" crusted lesions on an erythematous base around a child’s
mouth are indicative of:
A) Herpes Simplex
B) Impetigo
C) Eczema
D) Contact Dermatitis
*Answer: B) Impetigo *
Rationale: Non-bullous impetigo is characterized by these classic honey-colored crusts.
11. Which COPD medication is the first-line treatment for a patient in GOLD Group
A?
A) Inhaled Corticosteroid (ICS)
B) Short-acting Bronchodilator (SABA or SAMA)
C) Long-acting Beta-Agonist (LABA)
D) Long-acting Muscarinic Antagonist (LAMA)
*Answer: B) Short-acting Bronchodilator (SABA or SAMA) *
Rationale: GOLD Group A patients (low risk, fewer symptoms) are managed with an as-
needed short-acting bronchodilator.
12. A patient with Asthma uses their SABA (Albuterol) more than 2 days a week
but not daily. How is their asthma classified?
A) Intermittent
B) Mild Persistent
C) Moderate Persistent
D) Severe Persistent
Verified A+ Graded Review
Master the most frequently tested topics on the NSG 6440 Predictor Exam with this
targeted "Top 50" high-yield study script updated for the 2026 curriculum. This guide
provides rapid-fire answers and clinical rationales for essential primary care subjects,
including HIV monitoring, pediatric milestones, and geriatric pharmacology. Perfect for
last-minute cramming or a final knowledge check, this document ensures you grasp the
critical diagnostic criteria needed to secure an A+ on your South University final.
1. A 2-year-old presents with a 2-day history of ear pain and fever (
). Exam shows a bulging, opaque tympanic membrane with decreased mobility.
What is the first-line antibiotic treatment?
A) Azithromycin 10 mg/kg
B) Amoxicillin 80-90 mg/kg/day
C) Cephalexin 50 mg/kg/day
D) Augmentin 45 mg/kg/day
*Answer: B) Amoxicillin 80-90 mg/kg/day *
Rationale: High-dose Amoxicillin is the first-line treatment for uncomplicated acute otitis
media (AOM) in children without a recent history of antibiotic use.
2. Which finding on a funduscopic exam is most characteristic of chronic Primary
Open-Angle Glaucoma?
A) AV nicking and cotton wool spots
B) Increased cup-to-disc ratio (> 0.5)
C) Macular drusen
D) Flame-shaped hemorrhages
*Answer: B) Increased cup-to-disc ratio (> 0.5) *
,Rationale: Glaucoma causes "cupping" of the optic nerve head as intraocular pressure
damages the nerve fibers.
3. A patient presents with sudden onset of severe eye pain, blurred vision, and
"halos" around lights. The pupil is mid-dilated and fixed. What is the immediate
priority?
A) Prescribe antibiotic drops
B) Perform a fluorescein stain
C) Immediate referral to Ophthalmology or ER
D) Prescribe topical corticosteroids
*Answer: C) Immediate referral to Ophthalmology or ER *
Rationale: These are classic signs of Acute Angle-Closure Glaucoma, a medical
emergency that can lead to permanent blindness within hours.
4. A 24-year-old male complains of bilateral eye itching and rope-like, stringy
discharge. This is most consistent with:
A) Bacterial conjunctivitis
B) Viral conjunctivitis
C) Allergic conjunctivitis
D) Chlamydial conjunctivitis
*Answer: C) Allergic conjunctivitis *
Rationale: Intense itching and stringy/watery discharge are hallmarks of allergic eye
disease, usually occurring bilaterally.
5. According to the Centor Criteria, which of the following increases the likelihood
of Group A Beta-Hemolytic Strep pharyngitis?
A) Presence of a cough
B) Absence of a cough
C) Low-grade fever
D) Rhinorrhea
*Answer: B) Absence of a cough *
Rationale: The absence of a cough, presence of tonsillar exudates, fever, and tender
anterior cervical lymphadenopathy are the four Centor criteria.
,6. A patient with Strep Pharyngitis has a history of a non-anaphylactic rash when
taking Penicillin. Which antibiotic is a safe alternative?
A) Amoxicillin
B) Cephalexin (Keflex)
C) Augmentin
D) Ampicillin
*Answer: B) Cephalexin (Keflex) *
Rationale: Patients with Type II (non-anaphylactic) Penicillin allergies can safely take
first-generation cephalosporins.
7. A 60-year-old smoker presents with persistent hoarseness for 6 weeks. What is
the next step in management?
A) Trial of Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPI)
B) 10-day course of Amoxicillin
) Referral to ENT for laryngoscopy
D) Voice rest and hydration
*Answer: C) Referral to ENT for laryngoscopy *
Rationale: Any hoarseness lasting more than 3-4 weeks, especially in a smoker, must be
evaluated to rule out laryngeal cancer.
8. What is the "gold standard" for diagnosing a corneal abrasion?
A) Visual acuity test
B) Slit lamp exam
C) Fluorescein staining with Wood's lamp
D) Tonometry
*Answer: C) Fluorescein staining with Wood's lamp *
Rationale: Fluorescein dye uptake identifies defects in the corneal epithelium, which
glow green under cobalt blue light.
9. A patient is diagnosed with Acute Bacterial Rhinosinusitis (ABRS). Symptoms
have persisted for 10 days without improvement. What is the recommended first-
line antibiotic?
, A) Azithromycin
B) Amoxicillin-Clavulanate (Augmentin)
C) Doxycycline
D) Levofloxacin
*Answer: B) Amoxicillin-Clavulanate (Augmentin) *
Rationale: IDSA guidelines recommend Augmentin over Amoxicillin for ABRS to cover
for resistant H. influenzae.
10. "Honey-colored" crusted lesions on an erythematous base around a child’s
mouth are indicative of:
A) Herpes Simplex
B) Impetigo
C) Eczema
D) Contact Dermatitis
*Answer: B) Impetigo *
Rationale: Non-bullous impetigo is characterized by these classic honey-colored crusts.
11. Which COPD medication is the first-line treatment for a patient in GOLD Group
A?
A) Inhaled Corticosteroid (ICS)
B) Short-acting Bronchodilator (SABA or SAMA)
C) Long-acting Beta-Agonist (LABA)
D) Long-acting Muscarinic Antagonist (LAMA)
*Answer: B) Short-acting Bronchodilator (SABA or SAMA) *
Rationale: GOLD Group A patients (low risk, fewer symptoms) are managed with an as-
needed short-acting bronchodilator.
12. A patient with Asthma uses their SABA (Albuterol) more than 2 days a week
but not daily. How is their asthma classified?
A) Intermittent
B) Mild Persistent
C) Moderate Persistent
D) Severe Persistent
