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NURS 5220 Exam 1 – Health Assessment University of Texas at Arlington | 2026 | Foundations of Health Assessment

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Ace your NURS 5220 Exam 1 with this comprehensive study guide featuring 300 advanced health assessment practice questions and detailed rationales. This exam covers essential concepts for nurse practitioners, FNP, and advanced practice nursing students including health history components (most important is health history, not physical exam), open-ended vs. leading questions ("Tell me about your symptoms" vs. "The pain is sharp, isn't it?"), symptom analysis mnemonics (OLD CARTS: Onset, Location, Duration, Character, Aggravating factors, Relieving factors, Timing, Severity), pain assessment (self-report is gold standard, PQRST mnemonic, numeric rating scale 0-10, nociceptive vs. neuropathic pain descriptors), review of systems (ROS), past medical history (childhood illnesses, surgeries, hospitalizations), family history (genetic disorders), social history (tobacco, alcohol, occupation), CAGE questionnaire for alcohol use disorder, constitutional symptoms (unintentional weight loss 5% in 1 month is significant), dizziness and vertigo differentiation, PND vs. orthopnea, tinnitus, melena vs. hematochezia vs. hemoptysis vs. hematemesis, palpitations, dysphagia vs. odynophagia vs. globus sensation, urinary symptoms (hesitancy, nocturia, stress vs. urge incontinence), nyctalopia (night blindness), photopsia (flashing lights), scotoma (blind spot), red flag symptoms (thunderclap headache = subarachnoid hemorrhage until proven, saddle anesthesia = cauda equina emergency, fever + back pain = infection), vital signs (normal ranges, orthostatic hypotension defined as SBP drop ≥20 mmHg with symptoms, widened pulse pressure in aortic regurgitation, Kussmaul breathing in DKA, Cheyne-Stokes pattern), general survey (cachectic appearance, BMI classifications), physical examination techniques (inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation; correct order including auscultation before palpation for abdomen), percussion notes (tympany over gastric bubble, dullness over liver, hyperresonance in COPD), stethoscope diaphragm (high-pitched sounds) vs. bell (low-pitched sounds), positions for exam (left lateral decubitus for S3/S4 murmurs, 45-degree for JVP, lithotomy for pelvic, Sims for rectal), infection control (standard precautions for all patients, contact precautions for MRSA/C. diff require gown and gloves, airborne precautions for TB require N95, hand hygiene is #1 prevention, C. diff requires soap and water not alcohol), cultural competence (LEARN model, using trained medical interpreters, LGBTQ+ affirming care, trauma-informed care), and developmental considerations (Denver II screening, HEADSS assessment for adolescents, normal age-related changes including presbyopia and slower reaction time, positioning for infant exam). Perfect for nurse practitioner students, FNP, AGNP, and advanced health assessment courses

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NURS 5220
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NURS 5220

Voorbeeld van de inhoud

NURS 5220 Exam 1 – Health Assessment
University of Texas at Arlington | 2026 |
Foundations of Health Assessment

Section 1: The Health History & Interviewing (Questions 1–
60)
1. The most important component of the health assessment is?
A. Physical examination
B. Health history
C. Laboratory tests
D. Vital signs
Rationale: The history guides the entire assessment and diagnosis.

2. Which is an example of an open-ended question?
A. "Do you have chest pain?"
B. "Tell me about your symptoms."
C. "Is the pain sharp?"
D. "Does it hurt when you cough?"
Rationale: Open-ended questions allow patients to narrate their experience.

3. The mnemonic OLD CARTS is used to assess?
A. Family history
B. Characteristics of a symptom
C. Past medical history
D. Social history
Rationale: OLD CARTS: Onset, Location, Duration, Character, Aggravating factors,
Relieving factors, Timing, Severity.

4. A patient reports chest pain that occurs with exertion and resolves with rest. This
describes?
A. Quality
B. Timing and relieving factors
C. Location
D. Severity
Rationale: Exertional onset and rest relief = timing and relieving factors.

,5. Which question best assesses the severity of a patient's pain?
A. "Is it sharp or dull?"
B. "On a scale of 0 to 10, with 10 being worst, what is your pain?"
C. "Where is the pain located?"
D. "How long have you had the pain?"
Rationale: Numeric rating scale quantifies severity.

6. A patient reports "I feel like the room is spinning." This is best described as?
A. Lightheadedness
B. Vertigo
C. Presyncope
D. Dizziness
Rationale: Vertigo = sensation of movement (self or environment).

7. A patient reports "I feel like I'm going to faint when I stand up." This is?
A. Vertigo
B. Presyncope
C. Syncope
D. Disequilibrium
Rationale: Presyncope = feeling of impending faint without loss of consciousness.

8. The review of systems (ROS) is a systematic review of?
A. Past medical conditions
B. Body systems for current or past symptoms
C. Family history
D. Social history
Rationale: ROS is a head-to-toe symptom inventory.

9. Which is a component of the past medical history?
A. Occupation
B. Childhood illnesses
C. Diet
D. Living situation
Rationale: PMH includes medical, surgical, hospitalization, and immunization history.

10. A patient reports "my father had a heart attack at age 50." This should be
documented in?
A. Past medical history
B. Family history
C. Social history

,D. Review of systems
Rationale: Family history includes health of blood relatives.

11. The CAGE questionnaire screens for?
A. Depression
B. Alcohol use disorder
C. Anxiety
D. Dementia
Rationale: CAGE: Cut down, Annoyed, Guilty, Eye-opener.

12. A patient reports "I've lost 15 pounds unintentionally in 2 months." This is a?
A. Review of systems finding
B. Constitutional symptom
C. Past medical history
D. Family history
Rationale: Unintentional weight loss is a constitutional symptom.

13. Which question is most appropriate to assess a patient's functional status?
A. "What medications do you take?"
B. "Can you bathe, dress, and prepare meals independently?"
C. "Do you have any allergies?"
D. "Have you had any surgeries?"
Rationale: ADLs and IADLs assess functional status.

14. A patient reports "I wake up gasping for air at night." This is documented as?
A. Orthopnea
B. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)
C. Dyspnea on exertion
D. Platypnea
Rationale: PND = awakening with shortness of breath.

15. A patient reports needing to sleep propped up on three pillows to breathe
comfortably. This is?
A. PND
B. Orthopnea
C. Dyspnea
D. Tachypnea
Rationale: Orthopnea = dyspnea relieved by sitting upright.

16. A patient reports "I see double." This is documented as?
A. Amblyopia
B. Diplopia

, C. Nystagmus
D. Strabismus
Rationale: Diplopia = double vision.

17. A patient reports "I hear ringing in my ears." This is documented as?
A. Vertigo
B. Tinnitus
C. Presbycusis
D. Otalgia
Rationale: Tinnitus = ringing, buzzing, or hissing.

18. A patient reports "I have black, tarry stools." This is documented as?
A. Hematochezia
B. Melena
C. Hemoptysis
D. Hematemesis
Rationale: Melena = black tarry stool from upper GI bleeding.

19. A patient reports coughing up blood. This is documented as?
A. Hematemesis
B. Hemoptysis
C. Epistaxis
D. Hematochezia
Rationale: Hemoptysis = coughing blood from respiratory tract.

20. A patient reports vomiting blood. This is documented as?
A. Hemoptysis
B. Hematemesis
C. Melena
D. Hematochezia
Rationale: Hematemesis = vomiting blood.

21. Which question best screens for depression in primary care?
A. "Are you sad?"
B. "Over the past 2 weeks, have you felt down, depressed, or hopeless?"
C. "Do you have suicidal thoughts?"
D. "How is your sleep?"
*Rationale: PHQ-2 is validated; first question screens for depression.*

22. A patient reports "I feel like my heart is skipping beats." This is documented as?
A. Tachycardia
B. Palpitations

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