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NURS 5220 Exam 2 – Health Assessment University of Texas at Arlington | 2026 | Advanced Health Assessment

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Ace your NURS 5220 Exam 2 with this comprehensive study guide featuring 300 advanced health assessment practice questions and detailed rationales. This exam covers essential concepts for nurse practitioners, FNP, and advanced practice nursing students including symptom analysis mnemonics (OLD CARTS, PQRST), health history components (ROS, PMH, FH, SH), dizziness and vertigo differentiation, constitutional symptoms (unintentional weight loss), CAGE questionnaire for alcohol use disorder, functional status assessment (ADLs/IADLs), red flag symptoms (thunderclap headache = subarachnoid hemorrhage, saddle anesthesia = cauda equina), HEENT assessment (Snellen visual acuity, presbyopia, myopia, fundoscopic exam findings including AV nicking in hypertensive retinopathy, cotton wool spots in diabetic retinopathy, optic disc margins, otitis media vs externa, Rinne and Weber tuning fork tests, conductive vs sensorineural hearing loss, cranial nerve testing CN III/IV/VI (extraocular movements, ptosis, diplopia), Horner syndrome (ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis), thyroid nodule malignancy risk (hard, fixed, painless), xanthelasma, corneal arcus, basel cell carcinoma (pearly nodule with telangiectasias), cardiovascular assessment (PMI location, S1 at apex, S2 split, S3 gallop in heart failure, S4 gallop in reduced compliance, murmur characteristics including holosystolic MR at apex radiating to axilla, holosystolic TR at LLSB increasing with inspiration, crescendo-decrescendo AS at right upper sternal border radiating to carotids, diastolic decrescendo AR at left sternal border, rumbling diastolic MS with opening snap at apex, continuous machinery murmur of PDA), JVP assessment (normal ≤4 cm above sternal angle), pulsus paradoxus in cardiac tamponade, pulsus alternans in severe HF, bounding pulse in AR, pulsus parvus et tardus in AS, pulmonary assessment (barrel chest in COPD, hyperresonance on percussion in COPD/pneumothorax, dullness in effusion/consolidation, crackles, wheezes, rhonchi, pleural friction rub, bronchial breath sounds in consolidation, egophony, whispered pectoriloquy, tactile fremitus, prolonged expiration in obstruction), abdominal assessment (correct order: inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation - auscultate before palpating to avoid altering bowel sounds), caput medusae (portal hypertension), Cullen sign (intra-abdominal bleeding), Grey Turner sign (retroperitoneal bleeding), Murphy sign (cholecystitis), McBurney point tenderness and Rovsing, psoas, and obturator signs for appendicitis, shifting dullness and fluid wave for ascites, Courvoisier sign (painless jaundice with palpable gallbladder = malignancy), hepatomegaly (liver span 12 cm), splenomegaly (palpable spleen), hernia types, prostate exam findings (hard nodular = cancer, boggy tender = prostatitis), musculoskeletal assessment (Lachman, anterior/posterior drawer, McMurray for meniscus, Phalen and Tinel for carpal tunnel, drop arm test for rotator cuff tear, Neer/Hawkins for impingement, Spurling for cervical radiculopathy, Finkelstein for De Quervain's, straight leg raise for lumbar radiculopathy, Trendelenburg sign for gluteus medius weakness, Thomas test for hip flexion contracture, Thompson test for Achilles rupture), and neurologic assessment (Babinski sign for UMN lesion, Hoffman sign for cervical myelopathy, pronator drift, finger-to-nose dysmetria for cerebellar disease, dysdiadochokinesia, resting tremor in Parkinson's, intention tremor in cerebellar disease, Romberg test for sensory ataxia, gait abnormalities including cerebellar ataxia (wide-based, unsteady), Parkinson's (shuffling, decreased arm swing), steppage gait (foot drop), waddling gait (proximal weakness), Kernig and Brudzinski signs for meningitis, clonus, hyperreflexia vs hyporeflexia, and Gower sign for proximal muscle weakness). Perfect for nurse practitioner students, FNP, AGNP, and advanced health assessment courses.

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Instelling
NURS 5220
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NURS 5220

Voorbeeld van de inhoud

NURS 5220 Exam 2 – Health Assessment
University of Texas at Arlington | 2026 |
Advanced Health Assessment



Section 1: The Health History & Interviewing (Questions 1–
50)
1. A patient presents with chest pain. Which question best explores the quality of the
symptom?
A. "Where is the pain?"
B. "Can you describe the sensation?"
C. "How long does it last?"
D. "What makes it worse?"
Rationale: Quality asks about character (sharp, dull, burning, crushing).

2. The mnemonic OLD CARTS stands for?
A. Onset, Location, Duration, Character, Aggravating factors, Relieving factors, Timing,
Severity
B. Onset, Location, Duration, Character, Aggravating factors, Relieving factors,
Timing, Severity
C. Observation, Location, Duration, Cause, Aggravation, Relief, Timing, Symptoms
D. Onset, Length, Description, Cause, Aggravation, Relief, Treatment, Severity
Rationale: OLD CARTS is a standard mnemonic for symptom analysis.

3. A patient reports "dizziness." Which question helps differentiate vertigo from
presyncope?
A. "Do you feel lightheaded?"
B. "Do you feel like you or the room is spinning?"
C. "Do you feel faint?"
D. "Is it worse when you stand up?"
Rationale: Vertigo = sensation of movement; presyncope = lightheadedness.

,4. The review of systems (ROS) is best described as?
A. Past medical history
B. A systematic inventory of body systems
C. Family history
D. Social history
Rationale: ROS is a head-to-toe symptom inquiry.

5. A patient reports a family history of breast cancer. Which additional information is
most important?
A. Age of diagnosis
B. Age of diagnosis and first-degree vs second-degree relative
C. Treatment received
D. Current health status
Rationale: Early age and first-degree relative increase risk.

6. Which question is most appropriate to assess a patient's functional status?
A. "Do you have any diseases?"
B. "Can you bathe, dress, and prepare meals independently?"
C. "What medications do you take?"
D. "Do you smoke?"
Rationale: ADLs and IADLs assess functional status.

7. A patient avoids answering questions about alcohol use. Which approach is best?
A. Skip the question
B. Ask again in a nonjudgmental way; explain why it matters
C. Assume no use
D. Ask family member
Rationale: Nonjudgmental, therapeutic approach builds trust.

8. The CAGE questionnaire screens for?
A. Depression
B. Alcohol use disorder
C. Anxiety
D. Dementia
Rationale: CAGE: Cut down, Annoyed, Guilty, Eye-opener.

,9. A patient reports "black stools." This should be documented as?
A. Hematochezia
B. Melena
C. Hemoptysis
D. Hematemesis
Rationale: Melena = black tarry stool from upper GI bleeding.

10. A patient reports coughing up blood. This is documented as?
A. Hematemesis
B. Hemoptysis
C. Epistaxis
D. Hematochezia
Rationale: Hemoptysis = coughing blood from respiratory tract.

11. Which question best screens for depression in a busy primary care visit?
A. "Are you sad?"
B. "Over the past 2 weeks, have you felt down, depressed, or hopeless?"
C. "Do you have suicidal thoughts?"
D. "How is your sleep?"
*Rationale: PHQ-2 is validated; first question screens for depression.*

12. A patient reports "chest pain that feels like an elephant sitting on my chest." This
describes?
A. Quality
B. Quality
C. Location
D. Severity
Rationale: Sensation description = quality.

13. The past medical history should include all EXCEPT?
A. Childhood illnesses
B. Review of systems
C. Hospitalizations
D. Surgeries
Rationale: ROS is separate from PMH.

, 14. A patient reports "my mother had a heart attack at age 50." This is documented in?
A. Past medical history
B. Family history
C. Social history
D. Review of systems
Rationale: Family history includes relatives' health conditions.

15. Which medication history detail is most important for a patient with hypertension?
A. Prescribing physician
B. Dose, frequency, adherence, and side effects
C. Pharmacy used
D. Cost of medication
Rationale: Adherence and side effects guide management.

16. A patient reports "I take my blood pressure medicine when I remember." This
indicates?
A. Non-adherence
B. Non-adherence
C. Drug allergy
D. Side effect
Rationale: Partial or inconsistent use = non-adherence.

17. The social history includes all EXCEPT?
A. Tobacco use
B. Genetic disorders
C. Alcohol use
D. Occupation
Rationale: Genetic disorders are family history.

18. Which question assesses a patient's sexual history in a respectful manner?
A. "Are you sexually active?"
B. "Do you have sex with men, women, or both?"
C. "Do you use protection?"
D. All of the above
Rationale: Inclusive, nonjudgmental language.

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