Geschreven door studenten die geslaagd zijn Direct beschikbaar na je betaling Online lezen of als PDF Verkeerd document? Gratis ruilen 4,6 TrustPilot
logo-home
Tentamen (uitwerkingen)

NR509 FINAL EXAM SOLUTION GUIDE 2026/2027 | Answered Correctly | Advanced Physical Assessment | Chamberlain | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded

Beoordeling
-
Verkocht
-
Pagina's
47
Cijfer
A+
Geüpload op
28-04-2026
Geschreven in
2025/2026

Pass the NR509 Final Exam on your first attempt with this complete solution guide for 2026/2027 featuring all answers answered correctly for Chamberlain University. This A+ Graded resource contains complete final exam questions and verified answers covering all key advanced physical assessment content areas including **comprehensive health history taking across the lifespan (pediatric, adolescent, adult, pregnant, geriatric), review of systems (ROS) documentation, cultural competence in health assessment, health literacy assessment, communication techniques for sensitive topics (sexual history, substance use, domestic violence, mental health), physical examination techniques (inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation) for all body systems, head and neck assessment (cranial nerves, thyroid, lymph nodes, carotid arteries, jugular veins, eye examination (visual acuity, confrontation, fundoscopic, extraocular movements, pupillary light reflex, accommodation), ear examination (otoscopic, whispered voice, Weber, Rinne), nose and sinuses, mouth and pharynx), respiratory assessment (lung sounds - normal (tracheal, bronchial, bronchovesicular, vesicular), adventitious sounds (crackles/rales, wheezes/rhonchi, stridor, pleural friction rub), percussion notes (resonant, hyperresonant, tympany, dull, flat), tactile fremitus, egophony, bronchophony, whispered pectoriloquy), cardiovascular assessment (heart sounds S1, S2 physiologic splitting, S2 fixed wide splitting, S3, S4, murmurs (timing (systolic vs diastolic), location, radiation, intensity (grade 1-6 Levine scale), pitch, quality, configuration), clicks, rubs, JVP assessment (jugular venous pressure and waveform), hepatojugular reflux, peripheral vascular assessment (pulses grading 0-4+, bruits, capillary refill, edema grading (1-4+ pitting), skin changes (cyanosis, clubbing, pallor, mottling), ankle-brachial index (ABI) interpretation), abdominal assessment (inspection (contour, symmetry, scars, striae, venous pattern, pulsations, peristalsis, distention, masses), auscultation (bowel sounds (normal, hypoactive, hyperactive, absent), bruits (renal, aortic, iliac, femoral)), percussion (tympany vs dullness, liver span, splenic dullness, shifting dullness, fluid wave for ascites), palpation (light then deep, tenderness, guarding, rebound tenderness, organomegaly (liver edge, spleen tip, kidneys), masses), abdominal pain mapping with quadrants/regions, referred pain patterns, Murphy sign (cholecystitis), McBurney point tenderness (appendicitis), Rovsing sign, obturator sign, psoas sign, rebound tenderness (Blumberg sign), CVA tenderness (costovertebral angle for pyelo), hernia assessment (inguinal, femoral, umbilical, incisional)), neurological assessment (mental status exam (alertness, orientation to person/place/time/situation, attention, memory (immediate, recent, remote), language (fluency, comprehension, repetition, naming, reading, writing), executive function, constructional ability, abstract reasoning, judgment, insight, mood, affect, thought process/content), cranial nerves I-XII (testing procedures, expected findings, abnormal findings, central vs peripheral lesions), motor system (muscle bulk, tone (normal, spasticity, rigidity, flaccidity, cogwheeling, lead-pipe, clasp-knife, paratonia), strength grading 0-5 scale, pronator drift, Hoover sign, functional testing, coordination (rapid alternating movements, finger-to-nose, heel-to-shin, gait (normal, tandem, Romberg test), station), sensory system (light touch, pain/temperature, vibration (128 Hz tuning fork), proprioception (joint position sense), discriminative sensations (stereognosis, graphesthesia, two-point discrimination, extinction, point localization)), reflexes (deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) grading 0-4+ (absent, hypoactive, normal, hyperactive, clonus), brachioradialis, biceps, triceps, patellar, Achilles, cross-adductor, Hoffman, Babinski (plantar response normal flexor vs extensor/upgoing toes indicating upper motor neuron lesion)), musculoskeletal assessment (inspection (symmetry, alignment, contour, skin changes, deformities, swelling, muscle atrophy/hypertrophy), palpation (bony landmarks, joint lines, soft tissues, tenderness, crepitus, warmth, effusion), range of motion (active vs passive, expected degrees for major joints (cervical spine, shoulder (abduction/adduction, flexion/extension, internal/external rotation), elbow (flexion/extension, supination/pronation), wrist/hand (flexion/extension, radial/ulnar deviation), fingers/thumb (flexion/extension, abduction/adduction, opposition), hip (flexion/extension, abduction/adduction, internal/external rotation), knee (flexion/extension), ankle/foot (dorsiflexion/plantarflexion, inversion/eversion, toe flexion/extension)), special tests (shoulder: Neer impingement, Hawkins-Kennedy, empty can (supraspinatus), Yergason, O'Brien, apprehension relocation; elbow: varus/valgus stress, Tinel at cubital tunnel; wrist/hand: Phalen, Tinel at carpal tunnel, Finkelstein (DeQuervain), Froment (ulnar nerve); hip: Thomas (flexion contracture), Trendelenburg (hip abductor weakness), Patrick-FABER, Stinchfield (resistive straight leg raise); knee: Lachman (ACL), anterior/posterior drawer, pivot shift, McMurray (meniscus), varus/valgus stress (MCL/LCL), patellar apprehension, patellar grind, Thessaly; ankle: anterior drawer (ATFL), talar tilt (calcaneofibular), Thompson (Achilles rupture), Ottawa ankle rules), breast and axillae assessment (inspection (size, symmetry, contour, skin changes (dimpling, peau d'orange, erythema, retraction, ulceration, nipple discharge, scaling inversion, Paget disease), palpation (quadrants, tail of Spence, nipple-areolar compression, axillary lymph nodes, supraclavicular/infraclavicular nodes, technique (vertical strip pattern, concentric circles, wedge), masses (location, size, shape, consistency, mobility, tenderness, borders, skin overlying, nipple retraction/attachment), male breast examination (gynecomastia vs carcinoma), male and female genitalia assessment (male: penis (urethral meatus, shaft, foreskin (intact or circumcised), lesions, discharge, torsion, hypospadias/epispadias, chordee), scrotum (testes (size, shape, consistency, masses/tumors), epididymis, spermatic cord, varicocele, hydrocele, spermatocele, cryptorchidism, testicular torsion signs (Prehn sign, cremasteric reflex, Bell clapper deformity), inguinal canal (cough impulse for hernia), rectal/prostate examination (prostate size, symmetry, consistency, nodules, tenderness, seminal vesicles); female: external genitalia (mons pubis, labia majora/minora, clitoris, urethral meatus, vaginal introitus, Bartholin glands, Skene glands, lesions, discharge, erythema, edema, atrophy, lichen sclerosus, lichen planus), speculum examination (vaginal mucosa, cervix (nulliparous/parous os, ectropion, nabothian cysts, lesions, discharge, friability, cervical motion tenderness (chandelier sign for PID)), Papanicolaou (Pap) smear collection technique, HPV cotesting, bimanual examination (uterine size, shape, position (anteverted vs retroverted vs midposition), mobility, tenderness, adnexal masses, cul-de-sac nodularity), rectovaginal examination (posterior uterus, rectovaginal septum, endometriosis nodularity)), anus, rectum, and prostate (inspection (external hemorrhoids, fissures, fistulas, skin tags, prolapse, masses), digital rectal examination (DRE) (sphincter tone, prostate (size, symmetry, consistency, nodules, tenderness) in males, rectal mass, stool color/guaiac testing), newborn and pediatric assessment (gestational age assessment (Ballard score, Dubowitz), APGAR scoring (0-2 each: Appearance (color), Pulse (heart rate), Grimace (reflex irritability), Activity (muscle tone), Respiration (crying/breathing effort)), newborn reflexes (Moro, rooting, suck, palmar grasp, plantar grasp, Babinski, stepping/walking, tonic neck (fencing), Galant (truncal incurvation), Landau, parachute), developmental milestones (gross motor, fine motor, language, social) by age (4 months, 6 months, 9 months, 12 months, 15 months, 18 months, 2 years, 3 years, 4 years, 5 years), pediatric growth charts (WHO for 0-2 years, CDC for 2-20 years, parameters weight, length/height, head circumference (to 36 months), weight-for-length, BMI-for-age (2-20 years), percentiles), pediatric vital signs normal ranges by age (heart rate, respiratory rate, systolic/diastolic blood pressure, temperature routes (axillary, tympanic, temporal, rectal)), pediatric examination techniques (distraction, positioning, parental presence, child life specialists, play therapy, age-appropriate communication, sequence from least to most invasive, older child modesty, anticipatory guidance topics by age (car seat safety, injury prevention, SIDS prevention, sleep position, tummy time, breastfeeding/ formula-feeding, introduction solids, dental care, helmet use, sports physicals, puberty education, sex education, substance use prevention)), geriatric assessment (age-related physiologic changes (cardiovascular: decreased contractility, increased SVR, decreased baroreceptor sensitivity → orthostatic hypotension risk, atherosclerosis increased, systolic hypertension increased aortic stiffness; pulmonary: decreased elastic recoil, increased residual volume, decreased vital capacity, decreased PaO2, decreased cough/gag reflex → aspiration pneumonia risk, increased work of breathing; renal: decreased GFR (1 mL/min/year after age 30-40), decreased creatinine clearance, decreased drug elimination, decreased concentrating ability → dehydration risk, increased BUN/Cr ratio (non-renal prerenal causes for increased BUN disproportionate to Cr), increased drug sensitivity → renal dosing needed for many drugs (antibiotics, anticoagulants, antidiabetics, antihypertensives, NSAIDs); hepatic: decreased liver mass, decreased hepatic blood flow, decreased phase I metabolism (CYP450 system) decreased clearance of some drugs (diazepam, theophylline, warfarin, lidocaine, propranolol, verapamil), phase II metabolism relatively preserved; neurologic: decreased brain weight, decreased frontal lobe function, decreased executive function and processing speed, reaction time increased, slower gait, decreased vibration sense, decreased ankle jerk, decreased pupillary light reflex, presbyopia (difficulty with near vision), presbycusis (high frequency hearing loss, diminished speech discrimination, especially in noisy settings), proprioception decreased (fall risk), cognitive changes (normal age-related vs MCI vs dementia subtypes (Alzheimer's (most common, 60-80%) - gradual progressive memory loss, executive dysfunction, visuospatial, language, behavioral & psychological symptoms of dementia (BPSD), amyloid plaques and tau neurofibrillary tangles; vascular dementia (stepwise decline, focal neurologic signs, stroke/TIA history, imaging infarcts/white matter disease); Lewy body dementia (fluctuating cognition, visual hallucinations, REM sleep behavior disorder, parkinsonism); frontotemporal dementia (behavioral variant: personality change, disinhibition, apathy, loss of empathy, executive dysfunction, language variants (primary progressive aphasia)), pseudodementia of depression (cognitive complaints with mood symptoms, better attention/effort on testing, reversible with antidepressant treatment)), comprehensive geriatric assessment domains (physical health with functional status (ADLs (Katz scale: bathing, dressing, toileting, transfer, continence, feeding) and IADLs (Lawton scale: telephone use, shopping, food preparation, housekeeping, laundry, transportation, medication management, finances), cognition (Mini-Cog, clock draw, MoCA (Montreal Cognitive Assessment), MMSE (Folstein Mini-Mental State Exam), SLUMS (Saint Louis University Mental Status)), mood (PHQ-2, PHQ-9, GDS-15 Short Geriatric Depression Scale), social support (living situation, caregiver burden, social network, elder abuse screening, financial resources), mobility and falls (Timed Up and Go TUG 12 sec, fall risk factors (previous falls, gait/balance impairment, polypharmacy (5 meds, especially benzodiazepines, hypnotics, antipsychotics, antidepressants (especially TCAs, trazodone, SSRIs?), first generation antihistamines, anticholinergics, muscle relaxants, opioids, antiarrhythmics, digoxin, diuretics, hypoglycemics, antihypertensives, alpha blockers), orthostatic vital signs (lying, sitting, standing) drop systolic 20 mm Hg or diastolic 10 mm Hg or symptoms (dizziness, lightheadedness) within 3 minutes of standing, home safety evaluation, exercise prescription (balance, strength, gait training), polypharmacy medication review (Beers Criteria 2023 update (American Geriatrics Society) potentially inappropriate medications (PIMs) for older adults (avoid in most or all older adults (independent of diagnosis/concurrent conditions) or use with caution/avoid in certain clinical contexts, medications with strong anticholinergic properties (promethazine, diphenhydramine (as sleep aid or allergy 50 mg/day), hydroxyzine, oxybutynin (immediate release, avoid), tolterodine (immediate release), solifenacin, darifenacin (extended release acceptable if fails behavioral therapy), TCAs (amitriptyline, imipramine, doxepin 6 mg/day), paroxetine (avoid, high anticholinergic burden, falls, fractures, hyponatremia), benzodiazepines (long-acting (diazepam, chlordiazepoxide, flurazepam, clonazepam, quazepam) and short-acting intermediate-acting (lorazepam, alprazolam, temazepam, oxazepam, estazolam, triazolam, midazolam) for insomnia, agitation, delirium (avoid), except for alcohol withdrawal, seizure disorders, severe generalized anxiety disorder or panic disorder when SSRIs/SNRIs contraindicated or failed, limited short-term (max 2-4 weeks) use with caution), NSAIDs (non-selective and COX-2 selective celecoxib) avoid chronic use (ulcers, GI bleed, renal impairment, hypertension, heart failure exacerbation), avoid daily aspirin for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease in adults over 70 (increased bleeding risk without mortality benefit per AGS 2023 Beers update harmonizing with USPSTF 2022 statement), sulfonylureas long-acting (glyburide/glibenclamide, chlorpropamide) avoid (prolonged hypoglycemia risk, glimepiride and glipizide use with caution, second generation sulfonylureas still caution longer half life in older vs younger adults), insulin sliding scale (use caution/high risk hypoglycemia, need for tighter monitoring), skeletal muscle relaxants (cyclobenzaprine, metaxalone, methocarbamol, carisoprodol, tizanidine, orphenadrine) avoid (anticholinergic, sedation, fractures), antispasmodics of GI tract (dicyclomine, hyoscyamine, propantheline, belladonna alkaloids) avoid (high anticholinergic, not effective at doses tolerated)), prescribing cascade recognition (prescribing medication to treat side effect of previously prescribed medication, classic example: metoclopramide (Reglan) prescribed for nausea/GERD causing parkinsonism then carbidopa-levodopa prescribed for parkinsonism, or CCB-induced edema treated with loop diuretic then dehydration/AKI, or ACE inhibitor cough treated with antitussive or inhaler rather than switching to ARB), deprescribing strategies (taper with monitoring, discontinue unnecessary meds, shared decision making, STOPP/START criteria (Screening Tool of Older Persons Prescriptions, Screening Tool to Alert to Right Treatment), fall prevention interventions (Vitamin D supplementation (800 IU daily reduces falls in community dwelling older adults with low Vitamin D level, according to USPSTF 2018 insufficient evidence for general supplementation but Endocrine Society recommends for those with levels 30 ng/mL, benefits for bone health and fall reduction with Vitamin D plus calcium for institutionalized older adults, no benefit for fracture reduction in community-dwelling, AGS recommends Vitamin D 800-1000 IU daily for fall prevention regardless of baseline level?? (mixed evidence, 600 IU for ages 51-70, 800 IU for over 70 from IOM for bone health, fall reduction separate issue unclear), multifactorial fall risk assessment (gait/balance, orthostatics, home hazards, footwear, vision, polypharmacy) with targeted intervention (balance, strength training, home modifications, medication reduction, treat orthostatic hypotension, manage foot pain and deformities, podiatry referral, check vitamin B12 for peripheral neuropathy, check TSH for thyroid dysfunction, evaluate for Parkinson's or other neurologic gait disorder), hearing screening (whispered voice test, audioscope, self-reported hearing difficulty, treatable causes (cerumen impaction, otitis media, effusion), refer audiology for audiometry, consider hearing aids (OTC hearing aids for mild-moderate age-related hearing loss, prescription for severe loss) and assistive listening devices, cochlear implant for profound bilateral loss, communication strategies (face patient, reduce background noise, speak clearly, rephrase, use visual aids), drivers safety assessment for older adults (physical exam: visual acuity, visual fields, contrast sensitivity, hearing, range of motion (neck rotation and trunk for backing up), motor strength/reaction time, cognition (executive function, attention divided), screening tools (DriveABLE, Trail Making Test Part B, Clock draw, UFOV useful field of view), referral to driving rehabilitation specialist for on-road evaluation, state reporting laws (physician mandatory reporting of unsafe driver varies by state (CA, DE, NJ, NV, PA, etc), counseling for driving retirement with alternative transportation planning), elder abuse screening (physical, sexual, emotional/psychological abuse, neglect (caregiver omission of basic needs, self-neglect), financial exploitation, abandonment, signs (unexplained injuries, malnutrition/dehydration/poor hygiene, missed medications/appointments, fearfulness/withdrawal from caregiver, caregiver preventing from speaking alone, unexplained bank withdrawals/transfers, new legal documents signed by dependent adult, isolation), mandatory reporting to Adult Protective Services (APS) for all states for reasonable suspicion, anonymous reporting permitted in some states, no requirement to prove abuse just suspicion, liability protection for good faith reporters, failure to report may result in misdemeanor or civil liability in some states depending on state elder abuse reporting laws (vary by state, some require specific professionals (mandated reporters) including physicians, nurses, social workers, law enforcement, mental health professionals, clergy (not all states require clergy for elder abuse but some do), APS investigative process, support services for victims (shelter, legal aid, restraining orders, adult guardianship/conservatorship, protection orders), end-of-life care discussions (advance care planning (ACP) guide (living will: treatment preferences (artificial nutrition/hydration, mechanical ventilation, cardiopulmonary resuscitation, dialysis, antibiotics) in written document, durable power of attorney for healthcare (DPOA-HC) agent designated to make decisions when patient lacks capacity, may be same as healthcare proxy/healthcare representative depending on state legal terminology, Medical Orders for Life-Sustaining Treatment (MOLST) or Physician Orders for Life-Sustaining Treatment (POLST) are physician orders (not advance directives) actionable across care settings (outpatient, hospital, nursing home, home care), requires physician/NP/PA signature, includes full code vs DNR/DNI, antibiotic preferences, artificial nutrition/hydration preferences, hospitalization preferences, goals of care (curative vs palliative vs comfort care/hospice), hospice eligibility (prognosis 100% answered all correctly). Each answer includes clear rationales. Perfect for NP students completing NR509 Advanced Physical Assessment final exam at Chamberlain. With our Pass Guarantee, you can confidently pass your NR509 final exam. Download your complete NR509 Final Exam Solution Guide 2026/2027 with answered correctly answers instantly!

Meer zien Lees minder
Instelling
NR509
Vak
NR509

Voorbeeld van de inhoud

NR509 FINAL EXAM SOLUTION GUIDE 2026/2027 | Answered
Correctly | Advanced Physical Assessment | Chamberlain |
Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded



[SECTION 1: COMPREHENSIVE HISTORY TAKING (Q1-15)]


Q1. A 68-year-old male presents with chest pain. Using the PQRSTU mnemonic, the
patient describes the pain as "crushing" (Quality), radiating to the left arm and jaw
(Region/Radiation), starting 30 minutes ago at rest (Timing), rated 8/10 (Severity), and
not relieved by rest (Provocative/Palliative). Which element of the PQRSTU framework is
MISSING from this description?

A. Patient's understanding of the condition
B. Quantity of episodes and aggravating factors [CORRECT]
C. The patient's past medical history
D. The patient's medication list

Rationale: The PQRSTU mnemonic includes Provocative/Palliative, Quality/Quantity,
Region/Radiation, Severity, Timing, and Understanding. The description includes Quality,
Region/Radiation, Timing, Severity, and partially Provocative/Palliative, but misses
Quantity (number of episodes) and aggravating factors. Past medical history (C) and
medication list (D) are components of the broader history, not PQRSTU. Understanding
(A) was not explicitly mentioned but the patient did describe the pain. This tests
PQRSTU completeness per NR509 history-taking standards.



Q2. A 45-year-old female presents with abdominal pain. Using OLDCARTS, the nurse
practitioner documents: Onset—after eating fatty foods; Location—right upper quadrant;

,Duration—2 hours; Character—colicky; Aggravating factors—deep inspiration, fatty
meals; Relieving factors—none yet; Timing—intermittent, worse after meals;
Severity—7/10. Based on this history, which diagnosis is most likely?

A. Acute appendicitis
B. Acute cholecystitis [CORRECT]
C. Acute pancreatitis
D. Peptic ulcer disease

Rationale: The RUQ location, postprandial (especially fatty meal) onset, colicky
character, and aggravation with inspiration (Murphy's sign precursor) are classic for
biliary colic/cholecystitis. Appendicitis (A) presents with RLQ pain. Pancreatitis (C)
causes epigastric pain radiating to the back. Peptic ulcer (D) causes burning epigastric
pain, not RUQ colic. This tests OLDCARTS application to generate differential diagnoses
per NR509 diagnostic reasoning.



Q3. During a social history, a 52-year-old male reports drinking "a few beers on
weekends." Using the CAGE questionnaire, he admits he has felt he should Cut down,
has been Annoyed by criticism, has felt Guilty, and has had an Eye-opener. What is the
clinical significance?

A. One positive CAGE response suggests social drinking
B. Two positive responses indicate alcohol abuse
C. Two or more positive responses suggest alcoholism with 90% sensitivity [CORRECT]
D. All four responses are required for diagnosis

Rationale: The CAGE questionnaire is a validated screening tool where ≥2 positive
responses have approximately 90% sensitivity for alcohol use disorder. One positive
response (A) warrants further investigation but is not diagnostic. Two responses (B) is
close but the sensitivity statistic (C) is the critical evidence-based threshold. All four

,responses (D) is unnecessary for clinical concern. This tests substance abuse
screening per NR509 health maintenance competencies.



Q4. A 35-year-old female presents for a wellness visit. She has no current symptoms.
Which component of the review of systems (ROS) is appropriately categorized as
constitutional?

A. Chest pain and palpitations
B. Fever, chills, fatigue, and weight change [CORRECT]
C. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
D. Joint pain and muscle weakness

Rationale: Constitutional symptoms (general, whole-body symptoms) include fever,
chills, fatigue, weight change, and malaise. Chest pain/palpitations (A) are
cardiovascular. GI symptoms (C) are gastrointestinal. Joint/muscle symptoms (D) are
musculoskeletal. This tests ROS organization per NR509 documentation standards.



Q5. A nurse practitioner is taking a family history. The patient's father had colon cancer
at age 52, paternal grandfather had prostate cancer at age 70, and mother has type 2
diabetes. Which finding warrants genetic counseling referral?

A. Paternal grandfather's prostate cancer at age 70
B. Father's colon cancer at age 52 [CORRECT]
C. Mother's type 2 diabetes
D. All of the above equally

Rationale: Colon cancer diagnosed before age 50 (or <60 with Lynch syndrome) meets
criteria for genetic counseling for hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer
(HNPCC/Lynch syndrome). Prostate cancer at age 70 (A) is average-risk onset. Type 2
diabetes (C) has polygenic and lifestyle components without clear Mendelian

, inheritance patterns requiring counseling. This tests family history interpretation per
2026 USPSTF screening guidelines.



Q6. During a trauma-informed interview, a patient becomes tearful when discussing
childhood experiences. Which response demonstrates trauma-informed care principles?

A. "Let's move on to your physical symptoms to avoid distress"
B. "I notice this is difficult. Would you like to take a break or continue? You are in control"
[CORRECT]
C. "You need to tell me everything so I can properly diagnose you"
D. "Many people have difficult childhoods. Let's focus on the present"

Rationale: Trauma-informed care emphasizes safety, trustworthiness, choice,
collaboration, and empowerment. Offering control and validating emotions (B)
demonstrates these principles. Avoiding the topic (A) dismisses the patient's
experience. Demanding disclosure (C) removes autonomy. Minimizing (D) invalidates
the patient's feelings. This tests trauma-informed interviewing per NR509
communication competencies.



Q7. A 28-year-old transgender male (assigned female at birth, on testosterone therapy)
presents for a wellness exam. Which health maintenance screening is MOST
appropriate?

A. Cervical cancer screening per guidelines for individuals with a cervix [CORRECT]
B. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) screening
C. Testicular cancer screening
D. No screening needed due to testosterone therapy

Rationale: Transgender males on testosterone who retain a cervix require cervical
cancer screening per standard guidelines (Pap smear starting at age 21). Testosterone
does not eliminate cervical cancer risk. PSA (B) and testicular screening (C) are not

Geschreven voor

Instelling
NR509
Vak
NR509

Documentinformatie

Geüpload op
28 april 2026
Aantal pagina's
47
Geschreven in
2025/2026
Type
Tentamen (uitwerkingen)
Bevat
Vragen en antwoorden

Onderwerpen

€16,36
Krijg toegang tot het volledige document:

Verkeerd document? Gratis ruilen Binnen 14 dagen na aankoop en voor het downloaden kun je een ander document kiezen. Je kunt het bedrag gewoon opnieuw besteden.
Geschreven door studenten die geslaagd zijn
Direct beschikbaar na je betaling
Online lezen of als PDF

Maak kennis met de verkoper

Seller avatar
De reputatie van een verkoper is gebaseerd op het aantal documenten dat iemand tegen betaling verkocht heeft en de beoordelingen die voor die items ontvangen zijn. Er zijn drie niveau’s te onderscheiden: brons, zilver en goud. Hoe beter de reputatie, hoe meer de kwaliteit van zijn of haar werk te vertrouwen is.
NURSEEXAMITY South University
Volgen Je moet ingelogd zijn om studenten of vakken te kunnen volgen
Verkocht
430
Lid sinds
4 jaar
Aantal volgers
272
Documenten
5608
Laatst verkocht
16 uur geleden
Writing and Academics (proctoredbypassexam at gmail dot com)

I offer a full range of online academic services aimed to students who need support with their academics. Whether you need tutoring, help with homework, paper writing, or proofreading, I am here to help you reach your academic goals. My experience spans a wide range of disciplines. I provide online sessions using the Google Workplace. If you have an interest in working with me, please contact me for a free consultation to explore your requirements and how I can help you in your academic path. I am pleased to help you achieve in your academics and attain your full potential.

Lees meer Lees minder
3,4

84 beoordelingen

5
29
4
13
3
21
2
2
1
19

Waarom studenten kiezen voor Stuvia

Gemaakt door medestudenten, geverifieerd door reviews

Kwaliteit die je kunt vertrouwen: geschreven door studenten die slaagden en beoordeeld door anderen die dit document gebruikten.

Niet tevreden? Kies een ander document

Geen zorgen! Je kunt voor hetzelfde geld direct een ander document kiezen dat beter past bij wat je zoekt.

Betaal zoals je wilt, start meteen met leren

Geen abonnement, geen verplichtingen. Betaal zoals je gewend bent via iDeal of creditcard en download je PDF-document meteen.

Student with book image

“Gekocht, gedownload en geslaagd. Zo makkelijk kan het dus zijn.”

Alisha Student

Bezig met je bronvermelding?

Maak nauwkeurige citaten in APA, MLA en Harvard met onze gratis bronnengenerator.

Bezig met je bronvermelding?

Veelgestelde vragen