AMLS Post-Test Questions & Answers – (All Correct)
Actual Exam – Complete Q&A with Detailed Rationales
– Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Foundations: Assessment-Based Management & Primary Survey
Q1: You arrive on scene to find a 58-year-old patient who responds to painful stimuli but
does not open eyes or speak. Using the AVPU scale, how would you document this
patient's level of consciousness?
A. Alert
B. Verbal
C. Pain [CORRECT]
D. Unresponsive
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C because the patient responds to a painful stimulus but
not to voice or spontaneously, which places them at "P" on the AVPU scale. This tells us
right away that we're dealing with a significantly altered patient who needs immediate
primary survey and airway protection.
Q2: During your primary survey, you note a patient has gurgling respirations, a
respiratory rate of 28, and an SpO₂ of 84% on room air. Which intervention is the priority?
A. Obtain a full set of vital signs and a 12-lead ECG
B. Apply a non-rebreather mask at 15 LPM and prepare for airway adjuncts or BVM
ventilation [CORRECT]
C. Begin a secondary survey and obtain a SAMPLE history
D. Start an IV and draw blood for lab analysis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This is correct because the assessment-based management model
emphasizes fixing immediate life threats in the primary survey before anything else.
,Gurgling respirations with hypoxemia means the airway and breathing are
compromised, so oxygenation and airway management come first.
Q3: A patient involved in a motor vehicle crash has absent breath sounds on the right,
tracheal deviation to the left, JVD, and hypotension. After ensuring airway patency, what
is the priority intervention?
A. Begin CPR immediately
B. Perform needle decompression on the right side at the second intercostal space,
midclavicular line [CORRECT]
C. Start bilateral large-bore IVs and run fluids wide open
D. Apply a pelvic binder and prepare for spinal immobilization
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B because this is a classic tension pneumothorax with
mediastinal shift, and needle decompression converts the life-threatening tension
physiology into a simple pneumothorax. In the field, you don't wait for a chest x-ray
when the signs are this obvious.
Q4: You are assessing a patient using the SAMPLE history format. Which piece of
information belongs under the "L" component?
A. "The patient takes metformin and lisinopril daily."
B. "The patient ate breakfast about 3 hours ago." [CORRECT]
C. "The patient has a history of hypertension and diabetes."
D. "The patient was mowing the lawn when the chest pain started."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The "L" in SAMPLE stands for last oral intake, which helps us determine
aspiration risk if airway management is needed and guides certain treatment decisions.
This is basic but critical information that shapes your whole approach to the patient.
Q5: A 42-year-old patient presents with tachycardia, tachypnea, fever of 39.2°C, and
altered mental status. Using SIRS criteria, how many criteria does this patient meet?
A. Two criteria
B. Three criteria
C. Four criteria [CORRECT]
D. Five criteria
Correct Answer: C
, Rationale: This patient meets four SIRS criteria: temperature over 38°C, heart rate over
90, respiratory rate over 20, and altered mental status indicating a probable white blood
cell abnormality. Recognizing SIRS early helps you identify sepsis before the patient
crashes.
Q6: During your primary survey, you find a patient with pale, cool, clammy skin; delayed
capillary refill; and a weak, rapid pulse. These findings suggest which type of shock?
A. Distributive shock
B. Cardiogenic shock
C. Hypovolemic or obstructive shock [CORRECT]
D. Neurogenic shock
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pale, cool, clammy skin with weak pulses and delayed cap refill are classic
signs of the "cold shock" states—hypovolemic or obstructive—where the body is trying
to compensate with peripheral vasoconstriction. This is different from the warm,
flushed skin you'd see in early distributive shock.
Q7: A patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 9. Which statement about this finding
is most accurate?
A. The patient is fully oriented and alert
B. The patient likely requires airway protection and close monitoring [CORRECT]
C. The patient is completely unresponsive
D. The patient will definitely need intubation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A GCS of 9 indicates significant alteration that should make you very
concerned about the patient's ability to protect their airway, though it doesn't
automatically mean intubation is required. This score tells you to stay on high alert and
be ready to intervene if the patient deteriorates.
Q8: You are triaging four patients at a multi-casualty incident. Which patient should
receive immediate transport to a trauma center?
A. A patient with a closed fracture of the radius who is alert and stable
B. A patient with a stab wound to the chest who is hypotensive and has absent breath
sounds on the left [CORRECT]
C. A patient with a minor laceration who is anxious but hemodynamically stable
Actual Exam – Complete Q&A with Detailed Rationales
– Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Foundations: Assessment-Based Management & Primary Survey
Q1: You arrive on scene to find a 58-year-old patient who responds to painful stimuli but
does not open eyes or speak. Using the AVPU scale, how would you document this
patient's level of consciousness?
A. Alert
B. Verbal
C. Pain [CORRECT]
D. Unresponsive
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C because the patient responds to a painful stimulus but
not to voice or spontaneously, which places them at "P" on the AVPU scale. This tells us
right away that we're dealing with a significantly altered patient who needs immediate
primary survey and airway protection.
Q2: During your primary survey, you note a patient has gurgling respirations, a
respiratory rate of 28, and an SpO₂ of 84% on room air. Which intervention is the priority?
A. Obtain a full set of vital signs and a 12-lead ECG
B. Apply a non-rebreather mask at 15 LPM and prepare for airway adjuncts or BVM
ventilation [CORRECT]
C. Begin a secondary survey and obtain a SAMPLE history
D. Start an IV and draw blood for lab analysis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This is correct because the assessment-based management model
emphasizes fixing immediate life threats in the primary survey before anything else.
,Gurgling respirations with hypoxemia means the airway and breathing are
compromised, so oxygenation and airway management come first.
Q3: A patient involved in a motor vehicle crash has absent breath sounds on the right,
tracheal deviation to the left, JVD, and hypotension. After ensuring airway patency, what
is the priority intervention?
A. Begin CPR immediately
B. Perform needle decompression on the right side at the second intercostal space,
midclavicular line [CORRECT]
C. Start bilateral large-bore IVs and run fluids wide open
D. Apply a pelvic binder and prepare for spinal immobilization
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B because this is a classic tension pneumothorax with
mediastinal shift, and needle decompression converts the life-threatening tension
physiology into a simple pneumothorax. In the field, you don't wait for a chest x-ray
when the signs are this obvious.
Q4: You are assessing a patient using the SAMPLE history format. Which piece of
information belongs under the "L" component?
A. "The patient takes metformin and lisinopril daily."
B. "The patient ate breakfast about 3 hours ago." [CORRECT]
C. "The patient has a history of hypertension and diabetes."
D. "The patient was mowing the lawn when the chest pain started."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The "L" in SAMPLE stands for last oral intake, which helps us determine
aspiration risk if airway management is needed and guides certain treatment decisions.
This is basic but critical information that shapes your whole approach to the patient.
Q5: A 42-year-old patient presents with tachycardia, tachypnea, fever of 39.2°C, and
altered mental status. Using SIRS criteria, how many criteria does this patient meet?
A. Two criteria
B. Three criteria
C. Four criteria [CORRECT]
D. Five criteria
Correct Answer: C
, Rationale: This patient meets four SIRS criteria: temperature over 38°C, heart rate over
90, respiratory rate over 20, and altered mental status indicating a probable white blood
cell abnormality. Recognizing SIRS early helps you identify sepsis before the patient
crashes.
Q6: During your primary survey, you find a patient with pale, cool, clammy skin; delayed
capillary refill; and a weak, rapid pulse. These findings suggest which type of shock?
A. Distributive shock
B. Cardiogenic shock
C. Hypovolemic or obstructive shock [CORRECT]
D. Neurogenic shock
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pale, cool, clammy skin with weak pulses and delayed cap refill are classic
signs of the "cold shock" states—hypovolemic or obstructive—where the body is trying
to compensate with peripheral vasoconstriction. This is different from the warm,
flushed skin you'd see in early distributive shock.
Q7: A patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 9. Which statement about this finding
is most accurate?
A. The patient is fully oriented and alert
B. The patient likely requires airway protection and close monitoring [CORRECT]
C. The patient is completely unresponsive
D. The patient will definitely need intubation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A GCS of 9 indicates significant alteration that should make you very
concerned about the patient's ability to protect their airway, though it doesn't
automatically mean intubation is required. This score tells you to stay on high alert and
be ready to intervene if the patient deteriorates.
Q8: You are triaging four patients at a multi-casualty incident. Which patient should
receive immediate transport to a trauma center?
A. A patient with a closed fracture of the radius who is alert and stable
B. A patient with a stab wound to the chest who is hypotensive and has absent breath
sounds on the left [CORRECT]
C. A patient with a minor laceration who is anxious but hemodynamically stable
