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BIO301 | BIO301 Pharmacology Exam 2 Questions with Correct Answers and Expert Explanation for Each Question

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BIO301 | BIO301 Pharmacology Exam 2 Questions with Correct Answers and Expert Explanation for Each Question

Instelling
Saint Paul\\\'S School Of Nursing
Vak
BIO301 | BIO301

Voorbeeld van de inhoud

BIO301 | BIO301 Pharmacology Exam 2 Version 1 |
Questions with Correct Answers and Expert
Explanation for Each Question | Saint Paul’s School
of Nursing
1. A patient is prescribed Bethanechol for postoperative urinary retention. Which of

the following is a primary contraindication for this medication?

A. Mechanical intestinal obstruction


B. Glaucoma


C. Hypothyroidism


D. Tachycardia


Correct Answer: A


Expert Explanation: Bethanechol is a direct-acting cholinergic agonist that

stimulates the detrusor muscle and relaxes the urinary sphincter. It is strictly

contraindicated in patients with mechanical bowel or urinary tract obstructions due

to the risk of organ rupture. The medication increases peristalsis and pressure

within the lumens of the gastrointestinal and urinary systems. Nurses must confirm

the absence of an anatomical blockage before administration to ensure patient

safety. Other contraindications include asthma and peptic ulcer disease due to

increased secretions and bronchoconstriction.

,2. What is the primary mechanism of action for Atropine when used to treat

symptomatic bradycardia?

A. Stimulation of Beta-1 adrenergic receptors


B. Blockade of muscarinic cholinergic receptors


C. Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system


D. Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase


Correct Answer: B


Expert Explanation: Atropine is a potent anticholinergic drug that works by

competitively blocking muscarinic receptors in the heart. By blocking the effects of

the vagus nerve, it effectively increases the heart rate and improves conduction

through the AV node. This action directly opposes the parasympathetic nervous

system’s inhibitory effects on the cardiac cycle. It is the first-line medication in the

ACLS protocol for managing acute bradyarrhythmias. Nurses must monitor for

secondary effects such as dry mouth and urinary retention following administration.


3. A patient is receiving Epinephrine via intravenous infusion for anaphylactic shock.

Which physiological response should the nurse anticipate?

A. Increased peripheral vascular resistance


B. Bronchoconstriction


C. Decreased cardiac output

,D. Miosis of the pupils


Correct Answer: A


Expert Explanation: Epinephrine is a non-selective adrenergic agonist that

stimulates Alpha-1, Beta-1, and Beta-2 receptors. Stimulation of Alpha-1 receptors

results in profound vasoconstriction, which increases peripheral vascular resistance

and blood pressure. Simultaneously, Beta-2 stimulation leads to bronchodilation,

which is critical during an anaphylactic reaction. Beta-1 activation increases heart

rate and contractility to support systemic perfusion. Monitoring the patient’s blood

pressure and cardiac rhythm is essential during an epinephrine infusion.


4. Which side effect is most closely associated with the use of Alpha-1 blockers like

Prazosin?

A. Hypertension


B. Orthostatic hypotension


C. Urinary retention


D. Bradycardia


Correct Answer: B


Expert Explanation: Prazosin is an Alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist used primarily

for the treatment of hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia. By blocking

Alpha-1 receptors on vascular smooth muscle, it causes vasodilation and lowers

, blood pressure. A significant adverse effect is the ‘first-dose phenomenon,’ which

presents as profound orthostatic hypotension. Patients should be instructed to

change positions slowly and take the initial dose at bedtime to prevent falls. Reflex

tachycardia may also occur as the body attempts to compensate for the drop in

blood pressure.


5. A patient with asthma is diagnosed with hypertension. Which medication should

the nurse question if it is prescribed for this patient?

A. Metoprolol


B. Lisinopril


C. Atenolol


D. Propranolol


Correct Answer: D


Expert Explanation: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that inhibits both

Beta-1 and Beta-2 adrenergic receptors. Blocking Beta-2 receptors in the lungs can

lead to bronchospasm, which is life-threatening for patients with asthma or COPD.

Cardioselective beta-blockers like Metoprolol or Atenolol are generally preferred in

respiratory patients as they primarily target Beta-1 receptors in the heart. The

nurse must assess the patient’s respiratory history before administering any non-

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Instelling
Saint Paul\\\'S School Of Nursing
Vak
BIO301 | BIO301

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