FNP654 | FNP654 Family Primary Care II Final
Exam v1 | Questions with Correct Answers and
Expert Explanation for Each Question | Grand
Canyon University
1. A 24-year-old female presents for her first prenatal visit. She is approximately 8
weeks pregnant. Which of the following is the recommended initial screening test for
cystic fibrosis (CF)?
A. Maternal carrier screening
B. Amniocentesis
C. Chorionic villus sampling
D. Fetal ultrasound
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists
recommends that cystic fibrosis carrier screening be offered to all pregnant women.
If the mother is a carrier, the father should then be tested to determine the risk to
the fetus. This approach is the standard initial step in prenatal genetic screening.
2. A 4-year-old child presents with a ‘barking’ cough and inspiratory stridor. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute Epiglottitis
,B. Bronchiolitis
C. Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis)
D. Asthma exacerbation
Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: Croup is typically caused by the parainfluenza virus and is
characterized by subglottic edema. The classic presentation includes a seal-like
barking cough and inspiratory stridor in a young child. Management often includes a
single dose of dexamethasone to reduce airway inflammation.
3. According to the current USPSTF guidelines, at what age should routine cervical
cancer screening with cytology alone begin?
A. At the onset of sexual activity
B. Age 18
C. Age 25
D. Age 21
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: Cervical cancer screening should begin at age 21 regardless of
the age of onset of sexual activity. For women aged 21 to 29, screening is
recommended every 3 years with cervical cytology alone. Screening before age 21 is
,not recommended because it may lead to unnecessary treatment of lesions that
would resolve spontaneously.
4. A 32-year-old pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation has a 1-hour glucose
challenge test result of 155 mg/dL. What is the next appropriate step?
A. Diagnose gestational diabetes
B. Perform a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)
C. Repeat the 1-hour test in one week
D. Start insulin therapy immediately
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: A 1-hour glucose challenge test result of 140 mg/dL or higher
is generally considered positive and requires follow-up. The definitive diagnosis of
gestational diabetes is made using a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test. The patient
must remain fasted for the 3-hour test to ensure accurate results.
5. Which of the following is a physical exam finding pathognomonic for Measles
(Rubeola)?
A. Slapped-cheek appearance
B. Strawberry tongue
C. Koplik spots
, D. Dewdrop on a rose petal rash
Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: Koplik spots are small, white spots on a red background that
appear on the buccal mucosa opposite the first and second molars. They typically
appear 1-2 days before the measles rash and are considered a hallmark sign of the
disease. Identifying these spots early can assist in the isolation and management of
the patient.
6. A 15-year-old female presents with primary amenorrhea. She has short stature and
a webbed neck. What is the most likely chromosomal abnormality?
A. 45, X
B. 47, XXY
C. 47, XXX
D. Trisomy 21
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: Turner syndrome is characterized by the partial or complete
absence of one X chromosome (45, X). Common clinical features include short
stature, webbed neck, and ovarian dysgenesis leading to primary amenorrhea.
Diagnosis is confirmed through karyotype analysis.
Exam v1 | Questions with Correct Answers and
Expert Explanation for Each Question | Grand
Canyon University
1. A 24-year-old female presents for her first prenatal visit. She is approximately 8
weeks pregnant. Which of the following is the recommended initial screening test for
cystic fibrosis (CF)?
A. Maternal carrier screening
B. Amniocentesis
C. Chorionic villus sampling
D. Fetal ultrasound
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists
recommends that cystic fibrosis carrier screening be offered to all pregnant women.
If the mother is a carrier, the father should then be tested to determine the risk to
the fetus. This approach is the standard initial step in prenatal genetic screening.
2. A 4-year-old child presents with a ‘barking’ cough and inspiratory stridor. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute Epiglottitis
,B. Bronchiolitis
C. Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis)
D. Asthma exacerbation
Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: Croup is typically caused by the parainfluenza virus and is
characterized by subglottic edema. The classic presentation includes a seal-like
barking cough and inspiratory stridor in a young child. Management often includes a
single dose of dexamethasone to reduce airway inflammation.
3. According to the current USPSTF guidelines, at what age should routine cervical
cancer screening with cytology alone begin?
A. At the onset of sexual activity
B. Age 18
C. Age 25
D. Age 21
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: Cervical cancer screening should begin at age 21 regardless of
the age of onset of sexual activity. For women aged 21 to 29, screening is
recommended every 3 years with cervical cytology alone. Screening before age 21 is
,not recommended because it may lead to unnecessary treatment of lesions that
would resolve spontaneously.
4. A 32-year-old pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation has a 1-hour glucose
challenge test result of 155 mg/dL. What is the next appropriate step?
A. Diagnose gestational diabetes
B. Perform a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)
C. Repeat the 1-hour test in one week
D. Start insulin therapy immediately
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: A 1-hour glucose challenge test result of 140 mg/dL or higher
is generally considered positive and requires follow-up. The definitive diagnosis of
gestational diabetes is made using a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test. The patient
must remain fasted for the 3-hour test to ensure accurate results.
5. Which of the following is a physical exam finding pathognomonic for Measles
(Rubeola)?
A. Slapped-cheek appearance
B. Strawberry tongue
C. Koplik spots
, D. Dewdrop on a rose petal rash
Correct Answer: C
Expert Explanation: Koplik spots are small, white spots on a red background that
appear on the buccal mucosa opposite the first and second molars. They typically
appear 1-2 days before the measles rash and are considered a hallmark sign of the
disease. Identifying these spots early can assist in the isolation and management of
the patient.
6. A 15-year-old female presents with primary amenorrhea. She has short stature and
a webbed neck. What is the most likely chromosomal abnormality?
A. 45, X
B. 47, XXY
C. 47, XXX
D. Trisomy 21
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: Turner syndrome is characterized by the partial or complete
absence of one X chromosome (45, X). Common clinical features include short
stature, webbed neck, and ovarian dysgenesis leading to primary amenorrhea.
Diagnosis is confirmed through karyotype analysis.
