NUR 283 COMP 2 EXAM
(2026/2027)
Comprehensive Nursing Concepts – Comp 2
Galen College of Nursing
100 Questions and Correct Answers | Already Graded A+ | 100% Verified
Student Name: ________________________________ Date: ____________________
Course: NUR 283 Section: __________ Instructor: ____________________
Program: BSN / RN Pre-Licensure Institution: Galen College of Nursing
SCORING SUMMARY
Component Questions Correct Score
Cardiovascular & 25 ___ ___%
Respiratory
Renal, GI, Endocrine & 25 ___ ___%
Neuro
Hematology, Immunity 15 ___ ___%
& Oncology
Fluid/Electrolytes, 15 ___ ___%
Acid-Base & Pain
Perioperative, 20 ___ ___%
Infection,
Pharmacology &
,Clinical Judgment
TOTAL 100 ___ ___%
,SECTION 1: Cardiovascular Nursing
1. A patient with heart failure reports increasing shortness of breath and needs to sleep with three pillows.
Which term best describes this finding?
A. Orthopnea
B. Dyspnea on exertion
C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
D. Cheyne-Stokes respiration
Rationale: Orthopnea is difficulty breathing when lying flat that is relieved by sitting upright. It is caused
by fluid redistribution from the legs to the central circulation when supine, increasing pulmonary venous
pressure. PND refers to sudden episodes of breathlessness at night.
2. The nurse is teaching a patient about sodium restriction in heart failure. Which statement by the patient
indicates understanding?
A. I can use salt substitutes liberally
B. I should limit my sodium intake to less than 2,000 mg per day
C. Canned vegetables are a good low-sodium choice
D. I only need to avoid adding salt at the table
Rationale: Patients with heart failure should limit sodium to less than 2,000 mg/day. Salt substitutes may
contain potassium chloride, which is contraindicated with ACE inhibitors and potassium-sparing diuretics.
Canned foods are typically high in sodium. Sodium restriction includes both added and hidden sources.
3. A patient is receiving furosemide (Lasix) IV for acute decompensated heart failure. Which laboratory
value requires immediate notification to the provider?
A. Potassium 3.0 mEq/L
B. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L
C. Sodium 138 mEq/L
D. Chloride 98 mEq/L
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes significant potassium loss. A potassium level of 3.0
mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which increases the risk of fatal cardiac dysrhythmias. The nurse should
notify the provider and expect an order for potassium supplementation before administering more
furosemide.
4. Which assessment finding is most concerning in a patient 48 hours post-myocardial infarction?
A. Fatigue on ambulation
B. Pericardial friction rub
C. Crackles at bilateral lung bases
D. Heart rate 96 bpm
Rationale: A pericardial friction rub 48 hours post-MI may indicate Dressler syndrome (post-cardiac injury
syndrome), an inflammatory response that can lead to pericarditis and pericardial effusion. While crackles
, suggest worsening heart failure, a friction rub is more specifically concerning for this potentially serious
complication.
5. The nurse is monitoring a patient receiving heparin for acute coronary syndrome. Which result
indicates the dose needs adjustment?
A. aPTT 45 seconds (control 30 seconds)
B. aPTT 78 seconds (control 30 seconds)
C. Platelet count 220,000/mm³
D. INR 1.0
Rationale: The therapeutic range for heparin is an aPTT of 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. With a
control of 30 seconds, aPTT should be 45–75 seconds. An aPTT of 78 seconds exceeds the therapeutic
range, increasing the risk of bleeding. The nurse should hold the heparin and notify the provider.
6. A patient with hypertension has a blood pressure of 178/102 mmHg. The nurse understands that which
classification applies?
A. Stage 1 hypertension
B. Stage 2 hypertension
C. Hypertensive crisis
D. Prehypertension
Rationale: Per ACC/AHA 2017 guidelines, Stage 2 hypertension is systolic ≥140 or diastolic ≥90 mmHg.
Hypertensive crisis is systolic >180 and/or diastolic >120 with evidence of target organ damage. This
patient's BP of 178/102 meets Stage 2 criteria. Prehypertension is 120–129/<80.
7. The nurse is caring for a patient with atrial fibrillation. Which medication is commonly prescribed for
rate control?
A. Amiodarone
B. Metoprolol
C. Adenosine
D. Lidocaine
Rationale: Beta-blockers such as metoprolol are first-line agents for rate control in atrial fibrillation. They
slow AV nodal conduction and reduce ventricular response rate. Amiodarone is used for rhythm control.
Adenosine is used for supraventricular tachycardia (not AFib). Lidocaine is for ventricular dysrhythmias.
8. A patient with heart failure has a BNP level of 1,200 pg/mL. The nurse understands this value
indicates:
A. Normal cardiac function
B. Mild heart failure
C. Moderate-to-severe heart failure
D. Pulmonary embolism
Rationale: B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) levels correlate with heart failure severity. Normal is <100
pg/mL, 100–300 suggests mild HF, 300–900 moderate, and >900 pg/mL indicates severe heart failure. A
value of 1,200 pg/mL reflects significant cardiac dysfunction requiring aggressive management.
9. Which dietary teaching is most important for a patient prescribed warfarin (Coumadin)?
(2026/2027)
Comprehensive Nursing Concepts – Comp 2
Galen College of Nursing
100 Questions and Correct Answers | Already Graded A+ | 100% Verified
Student Name: ________________________________ Date: ____________________
Course: NUR 283 Section: __________ Instructor: ____________________
Program: BSN / RN Pre-Licensure Institution: Galen College of Nursing
SCORING SUMMARY
Component Questions Correct Score
Cardiovascular & 25 ___ ___%
Respiratory
Renal, GI, Endocrine & 25 ___ ___%
Neuro
Hematology, Immunity 15 ___ ___%
& Oncology
Fluid/Electrolytes, 15 ___ ___%
Acid-Base & Pain
Perioperative, 20 ___ ___%
Infection,
Pharmacology &
,Clinical Judgment
TOTAL 100 ___ ___%
,SECTION 1: Cardiovascular Nursing
1. A patient with heart failure reports increasing shortness of breath and needs to sleep with three pillows.
Which term best describes this finding?
A. Orthopnea
B. Dyspnea on exertion
C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
D. Cheyne-Stokes respiration
Rationale: Orthopnea is difficulty breathing when lying flat that is relieved by sitting upright. It is caused
by fluid redistribution from the legs to the central circulation when supine, increasing pulmonary venous
pressure. PND refers to sudden episodes of breathlessness at night.
2. The nurse is teaching a patient about sodium restriction in heart failure. Which statement by the patient
indicates understanding?
A. I can use salt substitutes liberally
B. I should limit my sodium intake to less than 2,000 mg per day
C. Canned vegetables are a good low-sodium choice
D. I only need to avoid adding salt at the table
Rationale: Patients with heart failure should limit sodium to less than 2,000 mg/day. Salt substitutes may
contain potassium chloride, which is contraindicated with ACE inhibitors and potassium-sparing diuretics.
Canned foods are typically high in sodium. Sodium restriction includes both added and hidden sources.
3. A patient is receiving furosemide (Lasix) IV for acute decompensated heart failure. Which laboratory
value requires immediate notification to the provider?
A. Potassium 3.0 mEq/L
B. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L
C. Sodium 138 mEq/L
D. Chloride 98 mEq/L
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes significant potassium loss. A potassium level of 3.0
mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which increases the risk of fatal cardiac dysrhythmias. The nurse should
notify the provider and expect an order for potassium supplementation before administering more
furosemide.
4. Which assessment finding is most concerning in a patient 48 hours post-myocardial infarction?
A. Fatigue on ambulation
B. Pericardial friction rub
C. Crackles at bilateral lung bases
D. Heart rate 96 bpm
Rationale: A pericardial friction rub 48 hours post-MI may indicate Dressler syndrome (post-cardiac injury
syndrome), an inflammatory response that can lead to pericarditis and pericardial effusion. While crackles
, suggest worsening heart failure, a friction rub is more specifically concerning for this potentially serious
complication.
5. The nurse is monitoring a patient receiving heparin for acute coronary syndrome. Which result
indicates the dose needs adjustment?
A. aPTT 45 seconds (control 30 seconds)
B. aPTT 78 seconds (control 30 seconds)
C. Platelet count 220,000/mm³
D. INR 1.0
Rationale: The therapeutic range for heparin is an aPTT of 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. With a
control of 30 seconds, aPTT should be 45–75 seconds. An aPTT of 78 seconds exceeds the therapeutic
range, increasing the risk of bleeding. The nurse should hold the heparin and notify the provider.
6. A patient with hypertension has a blood pressure of 178/102 mmHg. The nurse understands that which
classification applies?
A. Stage 1 hypertension
B. Stage 2 hypertension
C. Hypertensive crisis
D. Prehypertension
Rationale: Per ACC/AHA 2017 guidelines, Stage 2 hypertension is systolic ≥140 or diastolic ≥90 mmHg.
Hypertensive crisis is systolic >180 and/or diastolic >120 with evidence of target organ damage. This
patient's BP of 178/102 meets Stage 2 criteria. Prehypertension is 120–129/<80.
7. The nurse is caring for a patient with atrial fibrillation. Which medication is commonly prescribed for
rate control?
A. Amiodarone
B. Metoprolol
C. Adenosine
D. Lidocaine
Rationale: Beta-blockers such as metoprolol are first-line agents for rate control in atrial fibrillation. They
slow AV nodal conduction and reduce ventricular response rate. Amiodarone is used for rhythm control.
Adenosine is used for supraventricular tachycardia (not AFib). Lidocaine is for ventricular dysrhythmias.
8. A patient with heart failure has a BNP level of 1,200 pg/mL. The nurse understands this value
indicates:
A. Normal cardiac function
B. Mild heart failure
C. Moderate-to-severe heart failure
D. Pulmonary embolism
Rationale: B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) levels correlate with heart failure severity. Normal is <100
pg/mL, 100–300 suggests mild HF, 300–900 moderate, and >900 pg/mL indicates severe heart failure. A
value of 1,200 pg/mL reflects significant cardiac dysfunction requiring aggressive management.
9. Which dietary teaching is most important for a patient prescribed warfarin (Coumadin)?
