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NR566 Advanced Pharmacology for Care of the Family Wk 7 Final Exam v3 Questions with Correct Answers and Expert Explanation for Each Question

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NR566 Advanced Pharmacology for Care of the Family Wk 7 Final Exam v3 Questions with Correct Answers and Expert Explanation for Each Question

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NR566 | NR566 Advanced Pharmacology for Care
of the Family Wk 7 Final Exam v3 | Questions with
Correct Answers and Expert Explanation for Each
Question | Chamberlain
1. A pregnant patient with hypothyroidism is currently taking Levothyroxine. How

should her dosage typically be managed during her pregnancy?

A. Decrease the dose to prevent fetal hyperthyroidism.


B. Keep the dose the same regardless of trimester.


C. Discontinue the medication until after delivery.


D. Increase the dose as early as possible after conception.


Correct Answer: D


Expert Explanation: During pregnancy, the demand for thyroid hormone increases

significantly to support fetal development and maternal metabolic changes. Most

women with pre-existing hypothyroidism require a 30% to 50% increase in their

Levothyroxine dosage starting in the first trimester. Failure to adjust the dose can

lead to adverse outcomes such as neurocognitive deficits in the offspring or

maternal complications.


2. Which of the following is a primary mechanism of action for Metformin in the

management of Type 2 Diabetes?

A. Stimulating the pancreas to secrete more insulin.

,B. Inhibiting hepatic glucose production and improving insulin sensitivity.


C. Increasing the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys.


D. Slowing the breakdown of complex carbohydrates in the gut.


Correct Answer: B


Expert Explanation: Metformin works primarily by decreasing hepatic glucose

production through the inhibition of gluconeogenesis. It also enhances insulin

sensitivity in peripheral tissues, which improves glucose uptake by muscle cells.

Unlike sulfonylureas, Metformin does not stimulate insulin secretion and therefore

carries a much lower risk of hypoglycemia.


3. A patient is prescribed a GLP-1 receptor agonist such as Liraglutide. Which side

effect should the clinician monitor for most closely?

A. Weight gain and fluid retention.


B. Severe abdominal pain radiating to the back.


C. Persistent dry cough.


D. Gingival hyperplasia.


Correct Answer: B


Expert Explanation: GLP-1 receptor agonists are associated with a risk of acute

pancreatitis, which typically presents as severe and persistent abdominal pain that

,may radiate to the back. Patients should be educated to report these symptoms

immediately for further evaluation. Additionally, these medications are known to

cause gastrointestinal side effects like nausea and vomiting, but pancreatitis is a

more serious concern.


4. Which clinical condition is a absolute contraindication for the use of combined oral

contraceptives (COCs)?

A. Well-controlled Type 2 Diabetes.


B. Age under 35 with mild obesity.


C. History of migraine with aura.


D. Dysmenorrhea.


Correct Answer: C


Expert Explanation: Combined oral contraceptives are contraindicated in women

who experience migraines with aura due to a significantly increased risk of ischemic

stroke. The estrogen component in the pill is the primary driver of this

cardiovascular risk factor. Clinicians should screen all women for neurological

symptoms and aura before prescribing estrogen-containing birth control.


5. What is the most appropriate instruction for a patient taking Alendronate

(Fosamax) for osteoporosis?

A. Take it at bedtime with a snack to avoid GI upset.

, B. Take it first thing in the morning on an empty stomach and remain upright for 30

minutes.


C. Take it with a full glass of orange juice for better absorption.


D. Crush the tablet and mix it with yogurt if swallowing is difficult.


Correct Answer: B


Expert Explanation: Bisphosphonates like Alendronate must be taken on an empty

stomach with plain water to ensure proper absorption, as food and other beverages

interfere with the process. Remaining upright for at least 30 to 60 minutes is critical

to prevent esophageal irritation and potential ulceration. This administration

protocol helps minimize the risk of severe chemical esophagitis.


6. A 65-year-old male is requesting a prescription for Sildenafil (Viagra). Which

medication in his current profile would make Sildenafil dangerous to use?

A. Atorvastatin.


B. Lisinopril.


C. Metformin.


D. Nitroglycerin.


Correct Answer: D

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