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FITZ Exit Exam Actual Exam 2026/2027 – Complete Exam-Style Questions with Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified | Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded

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FITZ Exit Exam Actual Exam 2026/2027 – Real-Style Exam Questions | 100% Correct Answers | Nursing Comprehensive Review | Clinical Judgment | Prioritization | Delegation | Patient Safety | Detailed Rationales | Graded A+ Verified | Pass Guaranteed – Instant Download

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FITZ Exit Exam Actual Exam 2026/2027 –
Complete Exam-Style Questions with
Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified | Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded
[SECTION 1: Safe & Effective Care Environment (Management of Care, Safety) — Questions 1-30]

Q1: A nurse is preparing to obtain informed consent from a client scheduled for a surgical
procedure. Which of the following actions by the nurse is appropriate regarding informed
consent?
A. The nurse explains the risks and benefits of the procedure to the client.

B. The nurse witnesses the client's signature on the consent form.

C. The nurse obtains the client's signature if the physician is unavailable.

D. The nurse contacts the facility's legal department to sign the consent form.



Correct Answer: B
Rationale: It is the physician's or advanced practice provider's responsibility to provide the
explanation of the procedure, risks, and benefits to the client. The nurse's role is to witness the
client's signature and verify that the client understands the information provided and is signing
voluntarily. Option A is incorrect because explaining the procedure is the provider's duty. Option
C is incorrect because the nurse cannot obtain consent if the provider hasn't explained it. Option
D is incorrect because legal departments do not sign consent forms.



Q2: The charge nurse is making assignments for the shift. Which of the following tasks is
appropriate to delegate to a licensed practical nurse (LPN)?

A. Developing the nursing care plan for a newly admitted client.

B. Administering a unit of packed red blood cells.

C. Performing the initial admission assessment on a stable client.

D. Reinforcing discharge teaching about wound care to a client.

,2


Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The LPN scope of practice includes reinforcing teaching that has already been
provided by the RN, as well as providing care for stable patients with predictable outcomes.
Options A and C involve assessment and care planning, which require the RN scope of education
and judgment. Option B, blood transfusion administration, often requires RN assessment and
monitoring during the procedure, though scope varies by state; however, reinforcing teaching is
consistently within the LPN scope and is the safest choice here.



Q3: A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed wrist restraints. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take to maintain safety standards?

A. Secure the restraints to the side rails of the bed.

B. Ensure the restraints are tied with a knot that can be easily released.
C. Apply the restraints tightly to prevent the client's hands from moving.

D. Obtain a verbal order from the provider and apply the restraints immediately.



Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Restraints must be secured with a quick-release knot (such as a half-bow knot) to
ensure they can be removed rapidly in an emergency. Option A is incorrect because restraints
should never be secured to the side rails (which could cause injury if the rails are lowered) but
rather to the bed frame. Option C is incorrect because restraints must be loose enough to allow
circulation and range of motion; one to two fingers should slide under. Option D is incorrect
because a restraint order must be obtained within a specific timeframe (often 1 hour), but it must
be a written order or according to facility policy, and restraints are a last resort.



Q4: During a disaster response, the nurse is performing triage using the START system. Which
client tag color should the nurse assign to a client who is not breathing and does not start
breathing after opening the airway?

A. Red

B. Yellow

C. Green

D. Black

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Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the START triage system, clients who are not breathing and do not resume
breathing after the airway is opened are classified as "expectant" and tagged black. This means
injuries are extensive and survival is unlikely given the available resources. Red tags are for
immediate/immediate life-threatening but survivable injuries. Yellow tags are for serious but not
immediately life-threatening injuries. Green tags are for minor injuries (walking wounded).


Q5: The nurse is receiving report on four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?

A. A client 2 days post-op with reports of pain at the incision site rated 5/10.

B. A client with pneumonia who has a temperature of 100.4°F (38°C).
C. A client with heart failure who reports sudden dyspnea while lying flat.

D. A client with a urinary tract infection requesting a bedpan.



Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should prioritize using the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation). Sudden
dyspnea in a heart failure client could indicate acute pulmonary edema, a medical emergency
requiring immediate intervention. Option A is important but pain is generally lower priority than
airway/breathing issues. Option B indicates a low-grade fever which requires attention but is not
immediately life-threatening. Option D is a routine care request that can be delegated or
addressed later.



Q6: A nurse is preparing to administer a medication via a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which action
should the nurse take to ensure client safety?

A. Flush the tube with 30 mL of water before and after medication administration.

B. Mix all medications together to reduce the number of flushes needed.

C. Check tube placement by auscultating air insufflation after medication administration.

D. Crush extended-release tablets before administering them via the tube.



Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Flushing the NG tube with 30 mL of water (or facility specific amount) before and
after medication administration ensures the tube is patent and prevents clogging or drug

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interactions. Option B is incorrect because medications should not be mixed unless compatibility
is confirmed. Option C is incorrect because placement should be verified before administration
(usually via pH testing), and auscultation is no longer the gold standard. Option D is incorrect
because extended-release or enteric-coated tablets should generally not be crushed as it alters
drug absorption.



Q7: A client is being discharged with a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse
understands that which of the following foods should the client limit to maintain therapeutic drug
levels?

A. Green leafy vegetables

B. Eggs

C. Oranges
D. Milk



Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Green leafy vegetables are high in Vitamin K, which antagonizes the effects of
warfarin. Consistent intake is key, but suddenly increasing intake can lower the INR (clotting
time), while decreasing it can raise the INR (risk of bleeding). The client does not need to avoid
them entirely but should keep intake consistent. Options B, C, and D do not significantly affect
warfarin metabolism.


Q8: An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) asks the nurse for assistance with a client who is
confused and trying to get out of bed. Which response by the nurse demonstrates the right
supervision/delegation?

A. "Go ahead and try to calm him down while I finish this charting."

B. "Apply soft wrist restraints immediately to keep him safe."
C. "I will come and help you. Please stay with him until I arrive."

D. "Call the physician for an order for a sedative."



Correct Answer: C

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