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NUR 205 | NUR 205 Med Surg Exam 3 Version 3 | Questions with Correct Answers and Expert Explanation for Each Question | Saint Paul’s School of Nursing

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NUR 205 | NUR 205 Med Surg Exam 3 Version 3 | Questions with Correct Answers and Expert Explanation for Each Question | Saint Paul’s School of Nursing

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Saint Paul\\\'S School Of Nursing
Vak
NUR205/NUR 205

Voorbeeld van de inhoud

NUR 205 | NUR 205 Med Surg Exam 3 Version 3 |
Questions with Correct Answers and Expert
Explanation for Each Question | Saint Paul’s School
of Nursing
1. A patient with iron deficiency anemia is being discharged. Which food choice by the

patient indicates an understanding of the dietary instructions?

A. Whole grain bread and tea


B. Milk and cheese


C. Oranges and fortified cereal


D. Apple juice and white rice


Correct Answer: C


Expert Explanation: Iron deficiency anemia requires the intake of heme and non-

heme iron sources to replenish stores. Oranges provide Vitamin C, which

significantly enhances the absorption of iron from fortified cereals. The nurse must

teach the patient to avoid drinking tea with meals as it can inhibit iron absorption.

Dairy products like milk should be consumed separately from iron-rich foods for

optimal results. Effective dietary management is a cornerstone of long-term

recovery for these patients.

,2. A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). Which

action should the nurse take first?

A. Verify the blood type with another registered nurse


B. Start an IV line with 5% Dextrose


C. Hang the blood using a single-lead infusion set


D. Warm the blood in a microwave to prevent chills


Correct Answer: A


Expert Explanation: Safety protocols for blood transfusions require two licensed

professionals to verify the patient and the blood product at the bedside. This step is

critical to prevent life-threatening ABO incompatibility reactions. The nurse must

ensure that only 0.9% normal saline is used to prime the tubing to avoid hemolysis.

Blood should never be warmed in a microwave because it can damage the cells and

cause a reaction. Checking the patient’s identifiers against the blood bag and the

medical record is the highest priority.


3. A patient with sickle cell anemia is admitted in a vaso-occlusive crisis. Which

intervention should the nurse prioritize?

A. Administering intravenous fluids at 200 mL/hr


B. Applying cold compresses to painful joints


C. Encouraging the patient to walk in the hallway

,D. Restricting oral fluid intake to prevent edema


Correct Answer: A


Expert Explanation: Hydration is the primary intervention for a vaso-occlusive

crisis to reduce blood viscosity. Increased fluid intake helps sickled cells flow

through the narrow capillaries more easily. Cold compresses should be avoided

because they cause vasoconstriction and worsen the sickling process. Bed rest is

typically indicated during the acute phase to reduce oxygen demand on the body.

This management strategy aims to alleviate pain and prevent further tissue

ischemia and infarction.


4. The nurse is caring for a patient with a platelet count of 15,000/mm³. Which nursing

intervention is most appropriate?

A. Encourage the use of a firm toothbrush


B. Apply pressure to injection sites for 10 minutes


C. Check the rectal temperature every 4 hours


D. Administer aspirin for mild headaches


Correct Answer: B


Expert Explanation: A platelet count below 20,000/mm³ puts the patient at high

risk for spontaneous and prolonged bleeding. The nurse must apply extended

pressure to any puncture sites to ensure adequate clot formation. Soft-bristled

, toothbrushes should be used to prevent gingival trauma and subsequent

hemorrhage. Rectal temperatures and aspirin are strictly contraindicated because

they increase the risk of internal bleeding. Monitoring for signs of intracranial or

gastrointestinal bleeding is a vital component of safety for these patients.


5. A patient with pernicious anemia asks why they must receive Vitamin B12 injections

instead of oral tablets. What is the nurse’s best response?

A. Your stomach lacks the intrinsic factor needed to absorb Vitamin B12.


B. The injections work faster to increase your energy levels.


C. Oral tablets are too expensive for long-term treatment.


D. Your liver is unable to store Vitamin B12 from food sources.


Correct Answer: A


Expert Explanation: Pernicious anemia is caused by an autoimmune destruction of

gastric parietal cells. These cells produce intrinsic factor, which is essential for the

absorption of Vitamin B12 in the terminal ileum. Without intrinsic factor, oral

supplements are not effectively absorbed into the bloodstream. Therefore, patients

require lifelong intramuscular or deep subcutaneous injections to bypass the

gastrointestinal tract. Educating the patient on the physiological basis of this

requirement improves compliance with therapy.

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