Medsurge 2 HESI Quizlets Test Bank
with Questions and Highlighted Correct
Answers, A+ Guaranteed (2025-2026)
A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix).
Which assessment finding requires immediate
intervention?
o A) Weight loss of 1 lb in 24 hours
o B) Serum potassium of 2.9 mEq/L
o C) Mild dizziness when standing
o D) Urine output of 1,200 mL/day
o Answer: B | Rationale: Hypokalemia (normal range 3.5-5.0
mEq/L) is a life-threatening complication of loop diuretics like
furosemide, as low potassium significantly increases the risk
of dangerous cardiac dysrhythmias. Weight loss of 1 lb/day is
expected with diuresis, mild orthostatic dizziness is common
but not immediately life-threatening, and a urine output of
1,200 mL/day is within the normal range.
2. The nurse assesses a client taking furosemide (Lasix) for
cardiac disease. Which ECG change would be a concern
for a client taking a diuretic?
o A) Tall, spiked T waves
o B) A prolonged QT interval
o C) A widening QRS complex
o D) Presence of a U wave
,o Answer: D | Rationale: A U wave is a positive deflection
following the T wave and is characteristic of hypokalemia, a
common electrolyte imbalance caused by loop diuretics. Tall,
peaked T waves, prolonged QT interval, and widening QRS
complex are all signs of hyperkalemia.
3. A client with a pulmonary embolism is receiving heparin.
Which lab test should be monitored to evaluate the
therapeutic effect of this medication?
o A) INR
o B) aPTT
o C) Platelets only
o D) Hemoglobin
o Answer: B | Rationale: Heparin therapy is monitored with
the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), which
measures the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. The
International Normalized Ratio (INR) is used to monitor
warfarin (Coumadin) therapy.
4. A client who has just undergone surgery suddenly
experiences chest pain, dyspnea, and tachypnea. The
nurse suspects a pulmonary embolism. What is the
immediate nursing action?
o A) Prepare the client for a perfusion scan
o B) Attach the client to a cardiac monitor
o C) Administer oxygen by way of nasal cannula
o D) Ensure the IV line is patent
o Answer: C | Rationale: Pulmonary embolism is a life-
threatening emergency. Applying the ABCs (airway,
breathing, circulation), the immediate priority is to administer
, oxygen to relieve hypoxemia, respiratory distress, and central
cyanosis. The provider should then be notified.
5. A client with peripheral vascular disease has undergone a
right femoral-popliteal bypass graft. The blood pressure
has decreased from 124/80 to 94/62. What should the
nurse assess first?
o A) IV fluid solution
o B) Pedal pulses
o C) Nasal cannula flow rate
o D) Capillary refill
o Answer: B | Rationale: With each set of vital signs, the nurse
should assess the dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses.
The priority is to determine if the drop in blood pressure has
affected adequate perfusion through the new graft.
6. The nurse is assessing a client's arteriovenous (AV) fistula.
Which finding provides evidence of its normal function?
o A) Ecchymotic area
o B) Enlarged vein
o C) Pulselessness
o D) Redness
o Answer: B | Rationale: The vein supplying an AV fistula
becomes enlarged and tortuous over time due to the
increased blood flow, and this is a sign of a patent,
functioning fistula. A bruit and thrill should also be present
on auscultation and palpation.
7. A client with a new AV fistula should be taught to:
o A) Sleep on the affected arm
o B) Avoid checking for a thrill
o C) Avoid carrying heavy objects
, o D) Apply tight bandages over the site
o Answer: C | Rationale: Heavy lifting or any constrictive
clothing or jewelry on the affected arm can damage the
newly created fistula, leading to clot formation. The client
should be taught to routinely check for a thrill.
8. A client with peripheral artery disease who has recently
been prescribed clopidogrel (Plavix) requires more
teaching when stating which of the following?
o A) "I should not be surprised if I bruise easier or if my gums
bleed a little when brushing my teeth."
o B) "It doesn't really matter if I take this medicine with or
without food, whatever works best for my stomach."
o C) "I should stop taking Plavix if it makes me feel weak and
dizzy."
o Answer: C | Rationale: The client should never stop taking
an antiplatelet medication like Plavix without consulting their
healthcare provider, as it puts them at risk for life-threatening
thrombotic events. They should report any significant side
effects, but not discontinue the medication.
9. A client with a history of heart failure is being discharged.
Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?
o A) "I'm going to weigh myself every morning before
breakfast."
o B) "If I feel more tired than usual, I should rest more and call
my doctor."
o C) "I should limit my fluid intake to 3 liters a day."
o D) "I'll make sure to take my diuretic early in the day."
o Answer: C | Rationale: Fluid restriction for heart failure is
typically 1.5 to 2 liters per day, not 3. This statement shows
with Questions and Highlighted Correct
Answers, A+ Guaranteed (2025-2026)
A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix).
Which assessment finding requires immediate
intervention?
o A) Weight loss of 1 lb in 24 hours
o B) Serum potassium of 2.9 mEq/L
o C) Mild dizziness when standing
o D) Urine output of 1,200 mL/day
o Answer: B | Rationale: Hypokalemia (normal range 3.5-5.0
mEq/L) is a life-threatening complication of loop diuretics like
furosemide, as low potassium significantly increases the risk
of dangerous cardiac dysrhythmias. Weight loss of 1 lb/day is
expected with diuresis, mild orthostatic dizziness is common
but not immediately life-threatening, and a urine output of
1,200 mL/day is within the normal range.
2. The nurse assesses a client taking furosemide (Lasix) for
cardiac disease. Which ECG change would be a concern
for a client taking a diuretic?
o A) Tall, spiked T waves
o B) A prolonged QT interval
o C) A widening QRS complex
o D) Presence of a U wave
,o Answer: D | Rationale: A U wave is a positive deflection
following the T wave and is characteristic of hypokalemia, a
common electrolyte imbalance caused by loop diuretics. Tall,
peaked T waves, prolonged QT interval, and widening QRS
complex are all signs of hyperkalemia.
3. A client with a pulmonary embolism is receiving heparin.
Which lab test should be monitored to evaluate the
therapeutic effect of this medication?
o A) INR
o B) aPTT
o C) Platelets only
o D) Hemoglobin
o Answer: B | Rationale: Heparin therapy is monitored with
the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), which
measures the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. The
International Normalized Ratio (INR) is used to monitor
warfarin (Coumadin) therapy.
4. A client who has just undergone surgery suddenly
experiences chest pain, dyspnea, and tachypnea. The
nurse suspects a pulmonary embolism. What is the
immediate nursing action?
o A) Prepare the client for a perfusion scan
o B) Attach the client to a cardiac monitor
o C) Administer oxygen by way of nasal cannula
o D) Ensure the IV line is patent
o Answer: C | Rationale: Pulmonary embolism is a life-
threatening emergency. Applying the ABCs (airway,
breathing, circulation), the immediate priority is to administer
, oxygen to relieve hypoxemia, respiratory distress, and central
cyanosis. The provider should then be notified.
5. A client with peripheral vascular disease has undergone a
right femoral-popliteal bypass graft. The blood pressure
has decreased from 124/80 to 94/62. What should the
nurse assess first?
o A) IV fluid solution
o B) Pedal pulses
o C) Nasal cannula flow rate
o D) Capillary refill
o Answer: B | Rationale: With each set of vital signs, the nurse
should assess the dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses.
The priority is to determine if the drop in blood pressure has
affected adequate perfusion through the new graft.
6. The nurse is assessing a client's arteriovenous (AV) fistula.
Which finding provides evidence of its normal function?
o A) Ecchymotic area
o B) Enlarged vein
o C) Pulselessness
o D) Redness
o Answer: B | Rationale: The vein supplying an AV fistula
becomes enlarged and tortuous over time due to the
increased blood flow, and this is a sign of a patent,
functioning fistula. A bruit and thrill should also be present
on auscultation and palpation.
7. A client with a new AV fistula should be taught to:
o A) Sleep on the affected arm
o B) Avoid checking for a thrill
o C) Avoid carrying heavy objects
, o D) Apply tight bandages over the site
o Answer: C | Rationale: Heavy lifting or any constrictive
clothing or jewelry on the affected arm can damage the
newly created fistula, leading to clot formation. The client
should be taught to routinely check for a thrill.
8. A client with peripheral artery disease who has recently
been prescribed clopidogrel (Plavix) requires more
teaching when stating which of the following?
o A) "I should not be surprised if I bruise easier or if my gums
bleed a little when brushing my teeth."
o B) "It doesn't really matter if I take this medicine with or
without food, whatever works best for my stomach."
o C) "I should stop taking Plavix if it makes me feel weak and
dizzy."
o Answer: C | Rationale: The client should never stop taking
an antiplatelet medication like Plavix without consulting their
healthcare provider, as it puts them at risk for life-threatening
thrombotic events. They should report any significant side
effects, but not discontinue the medication.
9. A client with a history of heart failure is being discharged.
Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?
o A) "I'm going to weigh myself every morning before
breakfast."
o B) "If I feel more tired than usual, I should rest more and call
my doctor."
o C) "I should limit my fluid intake to 3 liters a day."
o D) "I'll make sure to take my diuretic early in the day."
o Answer: C | Rationale: Fluid restriction for heart failure is
typically 1.5 to 2 liters per day, not 3. This statement shows
