NURS 203 | NURS 203 Maternity Exam 1 Version 2
Questions with Correct Answers and Expert
Explanation for Each Question
1. A pregnant client’s last menstrual period began on September 10. Using Naegele’s
rule, what is the estimated date of birth (EDB)?
A. June 10
B. May 17
C. December 17
D. June 17
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: Naegele’s rule is calculated by subtracting three months and
adding seven days to the first day of the last menstrual period. Starting from
September 10, subtracting three months brings the date to June 10. Adding seven
days results in an estimated date of birth of June 17. This method assumes a
standard 28-day cycle for accuracy. Clinical reasoning requires the nurse to verify
the consistency of the menstrual cycle before relying solely on this calculation.
2. Which of the following findings is considered a probable sign of pregnancy?
A. Goodell’s sign
B. Nausea and vomiting
,C. Fetal heart tones heard by Doppler
D. Amenorrhea
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: Probable signs are objective findings observed by the
examiner but are not definitive proof of pregnancy. Goodell’s sign involves the
softening of the cervical tip which typically occurs at the beginning of the second
month. Presumptive signs like nausea and amenorrhea are subjective and can be
caused by other conditions. Positive signs like hearing fetal heart tones provide
absolute confirmation of a fetus. Understanding these categories helps nurses
accurately assess maternal physiological changes during prenatal visits.
3. A nurse is educating a client at 12 weeks gestation about fetal development. Which
milestone has usually occurred by this time?
A. The eyelids are fused and the kidneys begin to produce urine.
B. The mother can feel distinct fetal movement (quickening).
C. Alveoli and surfactant are beginning to form in the lungs.
D.
A. The fetus has reached the age of viability.
Correct Answer: D
,Expert Explanation: By the end of the 12th week of gestation, the fetus is fully
formed with all major organ systems present. The eyelids remain fused to protect
the developing eyes during this period of rapid growth. The kidneys start
functioning and producing urine which contributes to the volume of amniotic fluid.
Quickening usually occurs later between 16 and 20 weeks depending on parity.
Nurses must provide accurate developmental information to help parents
understand the progression of their pregnancy.
4. To prevent neural tube defects, the nurse should instruct the client to increase their
intake of which supplement?
A. Vitamin C
B. Folic acid
C. Calcium
D. Iron
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: Folic acid is critical for the proper closure of the neural tube in
the early stages of embryonic development. Adequate intake before and during
early pregnancy significantly reduces the risk of spina bifida and anencephaly. The
recommended daily allowance for pregnant women is typically 600 mcg to 800 mcg.
Nurses should identify clients with a history of neural tube defects who may require
, higher doses. This educational intervention is a primary prevention strategy in
maternal-fetal health promotion.
5. A client in her second trimester reports a craving for laundry starch. How should the
nurse document and address this finding?
A. Document as normal pregnancy cravings and provide a list of healthy snacks.
B. Document as pica and assess the client for iron-deficiency anemia.
C. Document as a cultural preference and do not interfere.
D. Document as gestational pica and refer the client for a psych eval.
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: Pica is the persistent ingestion of non-food substances such as
starch, clay, or ice during pregnancy. This behavior is often linked to nutritional
deficiencies, particularly a lack of iron. The nurse must assess the client’s
hemoglobin and hematocrit levels to identify underlying anemia. Documenting this
finding accurately is essential for coordinating interdisciplinary care. Client
education should focus on the risks associated with consuming non-nutritive
substances and replacing them with proper nutrition.
6. According to the standard prenatal visit schedule, how often should a client with an
uncomplicated pregnancy be seen starting at 28 weeks?
A. Every 2 weeks
Questions with Correct Answers and Expert
Explanation for Each Question
1. A pregnant client’s last menstrual period began on September 10. Using Naegele’s
rule, what is the estimated date of birth (EDB)?
A. June 10
B. May 17
C. December 17
D. June 17
Correct Answer: D
Expert Explanation: Naegele’s rule is calculated by subtracting three months and
adding seven days to the first day of the last menstrual period. Starting from
September 10, subtracting three months brings the date to June 10. Adding seven
days results in an estimated date of birth of June 17. This method assumes a
standard 28-day cycle for accuracy. Clinical reasoning requires the nurse to verify
the consistency of the menstrual cycle before relying solely on this calculation.
2. Which of the following findings is considered a probable sign of pregnancy?
A. Goodell’s sign
B. Nausea and vomiting
,C. Fetal heart tones heard by Doppler
D. Amenorrhea
Correct Answer: A
Expert Explanation: Probable signs are objective findings observed by the
examiner but are not definitive proof of pregnancy. Goodell’s sign involves the
softening of the cervical tip which typically occurs at the beginning of the second
month. Presumptive signs like nausea and amenorrhea are subjective and can be
caused by other conditions. Positive signs like hearing fetal heart tones provide
absolute confirmation of a fetus. Understanding these categories helps nurses
accurately assess maternal physiological changes during prenatal visits.
3. A nurse is educating a client at 12 weeks gestation about fetal development. Which
milestone has usually occurred by this time?
A. The eyelids are fused and the kidneys begin to produce urine.
B. The mother can feel distinct fetal movement (quickening).
C. Alveoli and surfactant are beginning to form in the lungs.
D.
A. The fetus has reached the age of viability.
Correct Answer: D
,Expert Explanation: By the end of the 12th week of gestation, the fetus is fully
formed with all major organ systems present. The eyelids remain fused to protect
the developing eyes during this period of rapid growth. The kidneys start
functioning and producing urine which contributes to the volume of amniotic fluid.
Quickening usually occurs later between 16 and 20 weeks depending on parity.
Nurses must provide accurate developmental information to help parents
understand the progression of their pregnancy.
4. To prevent neural tube defects, the nurse should instruct the client to increase their
intake of which supplement?
A. Vitamin C
B. Folic acid
C. Calcium
D. Iron
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: Folic acid is critical for the proper closure of the neural tube in
the early stages of embryonic development. Adequate intake before and during
early pregnancy significantly reduces the risk of spina bifida and anencephaly. The
recommended daily allowance for pregnant women is typically 600 mcg to 800 mcg.
Nurses should identify clients with a history of neural tube defects who may require
, higher doses. This educational intervention is a primary prevention strategy in
maternal-fetal health promotion.
5. A client in her second trimester reports a craving for laundry starch. How should the
nurse document and address this finding?
A. Document as normal pregnancy cravings and provide a list of healthy snacks.
B. Document as pica and assess the client for iron-deficiency anemia.
C. Document as a cultural preference and do not interfere.
D. Document as gestational pica and refer the client for a psych eval.
Correct Answer: B
Expert Explanation: Pica is the persistent ingestion of non-food substances such as
starch, clay, or ice during pregnancy. This behavior is often linked to nutritional
deficiencies, particularly a lack of iron. The nurse must assess the client’s
hemoglobin and hematocrit levels to identify underlying anemia. Documenting this
finding accurately is essential for coordinating interdisciplinary care. Client
education should focus on the risks associated with consuming non-nutritive
substances and replacing them with proper nutrition.
6. According to the standard prenatal visit schedule, how often should a client with an
uncomplicated pregnancy be seen starting at 28 weeks?
A. Every 2 weeks