RN ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
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Q1 (Antihypertensives): A nurse is preparing to administer
a client's ACE inhibitor (e.g., lisinopril). Which nursing action
is most important before giving the medication?
o A. Check the client’s blood pressure.
o B. Ask the client if they have any food allergies.
o C. Review the client’s last potassium level.
o D. Ensure the client has urinated in the last 4 hours.
o Correct Answer: A. ACE inhibitors lower blood
pressure, so obtaining a baseline is crucial to prevent
symptomatic hypotension.
Q2 (Cardiac Glycosides): A client taking digoxin and
furosemide reports nausea and yellow-tinged vision. What is
the nurse's priority action?
o A. Administer an antiemetic as needed.
o B. Hold the next dose of furosemide.
o C. Check the client's digoxin level.
o D. Notify the provider immediately.
o Best Answer: C. Nausea and visual changes (yellow-
tinged vision) are classic signs of digoxin toxicity.
Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, which increases
this risk. The priority is to assess the digoxin level.
, Q3 (Heart Failure): A nurse is assessing a receiving IV
furosemide. Which of the following findings indicates the
medication is effective?
o A. Decreased blood pressure.
o B. Clear breath sounds.
o C. Increased urine output.
o D. Heart rate of 88/min.
o Correct Answer: B. Furosemide is a loop diuretic used
to manage fluid overload in heart failure. Clear breath
sounds indicate resolution of pulmonary congestion.
Q4 (Anticoagulants): A client on warfarin has an INR of 4.5.
The client has no signs of bleeding. What action should the
nurse anticipate?
o A. Administer Protamine sulfate.
o B. Administer Vitamin K.
o C. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
o D. Increase the warfarin dose.
o Correct Answer: C. The therapeutic INR for most
indications is 2-3. An INR of 4.5 is high, increasing
bleeding risk. The standard intervention is to hold
warfarin; if there was active bleeding, Vitamin K might
be given.
Q5 (Electrolytes & Cardiac Medications): A client is
receiving IV potassium chloride for hypokalemia. Which
assessment finding requires the nurse's immediate
intervention?
o A. Infusion site pain.
o B. Mild, intermittent nausea.
o C. QRS widening on the cardiac monitor.
, o D. Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L.
o Correct Answer: C. QRS widening can indicate severe
hyperkalemia, a life-threatening condition where
cardiac depolarization is dangerously affected.
Q6 (Lipid Management): A nurse is reviewing the medical
record of a client who is taking simvastatin. Which of the
following findings should the nurse identify as a potential
adverse effect?
o A. Elevated blood pressure.
o B. Elevated blood glucose.
o C. Elevated creatine kinase.
o D. Elevated sodium levels.
o Correct Answer: C. Statins like simvastatin can cause
rhabdomyolysis, or muscle breakdown, which would be
indicated by an elevated creatine kinase level.
Q7 (Heart Failure & Electolyte Monitoring): A nurse is
caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving a
new prescription for lisinopril. For which of the following
adverse effects should the nurse monitor when administering
lisinopril?
o A. Hypernatremia.
o B. Hypokalemia.
o C. Hypotension.
o D. Hypoglycemia.
o Correct Answer: C. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that
lowers blood pressure, so the nurse should monitor for
hypotension.
Q8 (Antihypertensives & Patient Education): A nurse is
providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new
, prescription for metoprolol. Which of the following client
statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
o A. "I can stop taking this medication when my blood
pressure is normal."
o B. "I should check my blood pressure and pulse rate
daily."
o C. "I will take this medication with grapefruit juice."
o D. "I need to report a weight gain of 1 pound in a
week."
o Correct Answer: B. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that
can cause bradycardia and hypotension; daily
monitoring is essential.
Q9 (Thrombolytics - Acute Care): A nurse is caring for a
client who is receiving alteplase (tPA) for an acute ischemic
stroke. Which of the following findings should the nurse
report to the provider immediately?
o A. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg.
o B. Slight bruising at the IV site.
o C. Sudden, severe headache.
o D. Occasional premature ventricular contractions (PVCs).
o Correct Answer: C. A sudden, severe headache is a
primary sign of intracerebral hemorrhage, the most
serious complication of thrombolytic therapy.
Q10 (Antiplatelet Therapy): A client asks the nurse why
they are taking clopidogrel after receiving a drug-eluting
stent. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
o A. "It will help dissolve any clots that have already
formed in your arteries."
Retake () with NGN Questions and
Verified Answers - 100 QUESTIONS 100%
Guarantee Pass
Q1 (Antihypertensives): A nurse is preparing to administer
a client's ACE inhibitor (e.g., lisinopril). Which nursing action
is most important before giving the medication?
o A. Check the client’s blood pressure.
o B. Ask the client if they have any food allergies.
o C. Review the client’s last potassium level.
o D. Ensure the client has urinated in the last 4 hours.
o Correct Answer: A. ACE inhibitors lower blood
pressure, so obtaining a baseline is crucial to prevent
symptomatic hypotension.
Q2 (Cardiac Glycosides): A client taking digoxin and
furosemide reports nausea and yellow-tinged vision. What is
the nurse's priority action?
o A. Administer an antiemetic as needed.
o B. Hold the next dose of furosemide.
o C. Check the client's digoxin level.
o D. Notify the provider immediately.
o Best Answer: C. Nausea and visual changes (yellow-
tinged vision) are classic signs of digoxin toxicity.
Furosemide can cause hypokalemia, which increases
this risk. The priority is to assess the digoxin level.
, Q3 (Heart Failure): A nurse is assessing a receiving IV
furosemide. Which of the following findings indicates the
medication is effective?
o A. Decreased blood pressure.
o B. Clear breath sounds.
o C. Increased urine output.
o D. Heart rate of 88/min.
o Correct Answer: B. Furosemide is a loop diuretic used
to manage fluid overload in heart failure. Clear breath
sounds indicate resolution of pulmonary congestion.
Q4 (Anticoagulants): A client on warfarin has an INR of 4.5.
The client has no signs of bleeding. What action should the
nurse anticipate?
o A. Administer Protamine sulfate.
o B. Administer Vitamin K.
o C. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
o D. Increase the warfarin dose.
o Correct Answer: C. The therapeutic INR for most
indications is 2-3. An INR of 4.5 is high, increasing
bleeding risk. The standard intervention is to hold
warfarin; if there was active bleeding, Vitamin K might
be given.
Q5 (Electrolytes & Cardiac Medications): A client is
receiving IV potassium chloride for hypokalemia. Which
assessment finding requires the nurse's immediate
intervention?
o A. Infusion site pain.
o B. Mild, intermittent nausea.
o C. QRS widening on the cardiac monitor.
, o D. Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L.
o Correct Answer: C. QRS widening can indicate severe
hyperkalemia, a life-threatening condition where
cardiac depolarization is dangerously affected.
Q6 (Lipid Management): A nurse is reviewing the medical
record of a client who is taking simvastatin. Which of the
following findings should the nurse identify as a potential
adverse effect?
o A. Elevated blood pressure.
o B. Elevated blood glucose.
o C. Elevated creatine kinase.
o D. Elevated sodium levels.
o Correct Answer: C. Statins like simvastatin can cause
rhabdomyolysis, or muscle breakdown, which would be
indicated by an elevated creatine kinase level.
Q7 (Heart Failure & Electolyte Monitoring): A nurse is
caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving a
new prescription for lisinopril. For which of the following
adverse effects should the nurse monitor when administering
lisinopril?
o A. Hypernatremia.
o B. Hypokalemia.
o C. Hypotension.
o D. Hypoglycemia.
o Correct Answer: C. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that
lowers blood pressure, so the nurse should monitor for
hypotension.
Q8 (Antihypertensives & Patient Education): A nurse is
providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new
, prescription for metoprolol. Which of the following client
statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
o A. "I can stop taking this medication when my blood
pressure is normal."
o B. "I should check my blood pressure and pulse rate
daily."
o C. "I will take this medication with grapefruit juice."
o D. "I need to report a weight gain of 1 pound in a
week."
o Correct Answer: B. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that
can cause bradycardia and hypotension; daily
monitoring is essential.
Q9 (Thrombolytics - Acute Care): A nurse is caring for a
client who is receiving alteplase (tPA) for an acute ischemic
stroke. Which of the following findings should the nurse
report to the provider immediately?
o A. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg.
o B. Slight bruising at the IV site.
o C. Sudden, severe headache.
o D. Occasional premature ventricular contractions (PVCs).
o Correct Answer: C. A sudden, severe headache is a
primary sign of intracerebral hemorrhage, the most
serious complication of thrombolytic therapy.
Q10 (Antiplatelet Therapy): A client asks the nurse why
they are taking clopidogrel after receiving a drug-eluting
stent. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
o A. "It will help dissolve any clots that have already
formed in your arteries."
