USPA D License ACTUAL EXAM
2026/2027 | USPA D License Skydiving
Certification | Verified Q&A | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Freefall Skills – Advanced Maneuvers
Q1: During a tracking dive, a skydiver notices they are losing altitude faster than the group but
maintaining horizontal speed. To correct their pitch and fall rate, they should:
A. De-arch the body to flatten the track and increase lift. [CORRECT]
B. Arch harder to increase vertical speed and catch the group.
C. Extend arms fully outward to maximize surface area.
D. Pull knees to chest to create a "ball" shape.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: De-arching (or "dishing") flattens the body profile, increasing surface area relative to the
airflow, which lifts the heels and flattens the track. Arching harder drives the track steeper and faster
vertically. Extending arms creates drag without necessarily correcting pitch. Knees to chest creates a
steeper dive. Pearl: Efficient tracking is about pitch control; small adjustments in the hips drastically
change your glide ratio.
Q2: When performing a "delta" track for maximum horizontal distance, the arms should be positioned:
A. Tight against the sides with hands on hips.
B. Swept back with hands slightly lower than the shoulders, elbows locked. [CORRECT]
C. Extended forward in a "superman" pose to balance the lift.
,D. Crossed over the chest to reduce drag.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A proper delta track requires swept-back arms to streamline the body while the legs provide
the drive. Hands lower than shoulders helps maintain a slightly nose-down attitude for speed. Arms at
the sides or crossed eliminates the lifting surface needed for a delta. Pearl: Think of your arms as the
wings of a dart; swept back for stability and speed.
Q3: At what altitude must all skydivers in a group formation be "broken off" and tracking away to ensure
clear airspace for deployment, according to USPA BSRs?
A. 4,000 feet AGL.
B. 3,500 feet AGL.
C. No lower than the deployment altitude, allowing enough separation time (typically 5,000 ft for big
ways). [CORRECT]
D. 2,500 feet AGL.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: While 3,500 feet is the minimum deployment altitude for D-license holders in groups,
breakoff must occur high enough to allow for tracking separation before deployment. For large
formations, this can be 5,000 feet or higher. Breaking off at deployment altitude invites collisions. Pearl:
A good track is useless if you don't have altitude to execute it; know your group's breakoff plan on the
ground.
Q4: You are exiting for a 2-way head-down dive. You immediately find yourself "falling out" of the stand
(falling onto your belly). The immediate correction to regain the head-down orientation is to:
A. Extend legs fully and look at the horizon.
B. Widen the stance (increase leg spread) and push hips forward gently. [CORRECT]
C. Tuck knees into the chest to move the center of gravity up.
D. Breathe out and relax.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Widening the stance increases stability (like a tripod), and pushing hips forward drives the
chest into the wind, helping regain the vertical orientation. Tucking knees or relaxing usually causes the
,skydiver to flip onto their back or belly. Pearl: Stability in freefall comes from the legs; if you are falling
out, widen your base.
Q5: During a "Murder" (tracking) exit, the leader should spot the group to ensure:
A. They exit directly over the landing area regardless of upper winds.
B. They exit upwind of the landing area to allow the group to track back. [CORRECT]
C. They exit downwind to maximize separation.
D. They exit over the nearest open field.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tracking exits generally move the group horizontally. If the group tracks upwind, they move
against the wind, while the wind drifts them back, potentially allowing the group to stay closer to the
DZ. Exiting downwind causes rapid drift away from the DZ. Pearl: Always calculate your opening point
based on the drift of the group, not just the individual.
Q6: To dock gently on a formation, a skydiver should:
A. Aim for the gripper and drive forward until contact is made.
B. Approach with drive, then flare (de-arch) to slow down immediately before contact. [CORRECT]
C. Crouch (arch hard) to slow down before the dock.
D. Use a flat turn to align and drive forward simultaneously.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Flaring (de-arching) creates drag and reduces forward speed, allowing for a soft "no-speed"
dock. Driving until contact usually results in a hard dock that destabilizes the formation. Pearl: "Fly to
the slot, not the grip." Arrive at zero relative speed.
Q7: A skydiver is performing a back-fly (back-sliding) maneuver. To move backward relative to the
ground:
A. They must arch the back and lift the chin.
B. They must cup the shoulders and point toes, driving with the heels. [CORRECT]
, C. They must extend arms forward and flutter kick.
D. They must sit in a seated position.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To back-fly (move backward feet-first while on the back), the skydiver cups their shoulders
and drives with their legs/heels into the relative wind. Arching on the back results in a belly-to-earth
backslide (face down). Pearl: Visualize pushing the wind off your heels to drive backward.
Q8: Which of the following is a critical safety check before attempting an angle flight jump?
A. Ensuring the jumpsuit has reinforced knees.
B. Confirming the intended flight path does not conflict with other groups on the same pass. [CORRECT]
C. Setting an audible alarm to 2,000 feet.
D. Removing the altimeter to reduce drag.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Angle flights cover massive horizontal distances and move fast. They often conflict with
traditional belly or freefly groups on the same pass if the spot and separation plan are not rigorously
coordinated. Pearl: Angle flyers "carve" through the sky; ground rendezvous separation is often
insufficient—use time separation.
Q9: What is the minimum USPA required altitude for deployment for a D-License holder during a night
jump?
A. 2,500 feet AGL.
B. 3,000 feet AGL.
C. 3,500 feet AGL. [CORRECT]
D. 4,000 feet AGL.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Per USPA BSRs, the minimum deployment altitude for night jumps is 3,500 feet AGL for all
license holders, regardless of license level, due to reduced visual cues and increased disorientation risks.
Pearl: Night jumps demand higher pull altitudes; give yourself extra time to orient the canopy and locate
the landing light.
2026/2027 | USPA D License Skydiving
Certification | Verified Q&A | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Freefall Skills – Advanced Maneuvers
Q1: During a tracking dive, a skydiver notices they are losing altitude faster than the group but
maintaining horizontal speed. To correct their pitch and fall rate, they should:
A. De-arch the body to flatten the track and increase lift. [CORRECT]
B. Arch harder to increase vertical speed and catch the group.
C. Extend arms fully outward to maximize surface area.
D. Pull knees to chest to create a "ball" shape.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: De-arching (or "dishing") flattens the body profile, increasing surface area relative to the
airflow, which lifts the heels and flattens the track. Arching harder drives the track steeper and faster
vertically. Extending arms creates drag without necessarily correcting pitch. Knees to chest creates a
steeper dive. Pearl: Efficient tracking is about pitch control; small adjustments in the hips drastically
change your glide ratio.
Q2: When performing a "delta" track for maximum horizontal distance, the arms should be positioned:
A. Tight against the sides with hands on hips.
B. Swept back with hands slightly lower than the shoulders, elbows locked. [CORRECT]
C. Extended forward in a "superman" pose to balance the lift.
,D. Crossed over the chest to reduce drag.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A proper delta track requires swept-back arms to streamline the body while the legs provide
the drive. Hands lower than shoulders helps maintain a slightly nose-down attitude for speed. Arms at
the sides or crossed eliminates the lifting surface needed for a delta. Pearl: Think of your arms as the
wings of a dart; swept back for stability and speed.
Q3: At what altitude must all skydivers in a group formation be "broken off" and tracking away to ensure
clear airspace for deployment, according to USPA BSRs?
A. 4,000 feet AGL.
B. 3,500 feet AGL.
C. No lower than the deployment altitude, allowing enough separation time (typically 5,000 ft for big
ways). [CORRECT]
D. 2,500 feet AGL.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: While 3,500 feet is the minimum deployment altitude for D-license holders in groups,
breakoff must occur high enough to allow for tracking separation before deployment. For large
formations, this can be 5,000 feet or higher. Breaking off at deployment altitude invites collisions. Pearl:
A good track is useless if you don't have altitude to execute it; know your group's breakoff plan on the
ground.
Q4: You are exiting for a 2-way head-down dive. You immediately find yourself "falling out" of the stand
(falling onto your belly). The immediate correction to regain the head-down orientation is to:
A. Extend legs fully and look at the horizon.
B. Widen the stance (increase leg spread) and push hips forward gently. [CORRECT]
C. Tuck knees into the chest to move the center of gravity up.
D. Breathe out and relax.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Widening the stance increases stability (like a tripod), and pushing hips forward drives the
chest into the wind, helping regain the vertical orientation. Tucking knees or relaxing usually causes the
,skydiver to flip onto their back or belly. Pearl: Stability in freefall comes from the legs; if you are falling
out, widen your base.
Q5: During a "Murder" (tracking) exit, the leader should spot the group to ensure:
A. They exit directly over the landing area regardless of upper winds.
B. They exit upwind of the landing area to allow the group to track back. [CORRECT]
C. They exit downwind to maximize separation.
D. They exit over the nearest open field.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tracking exits generally move the group horizontally. If the group tracks upwind, they move
against the wind, while the wind drifts them back, potentially allowing the group to stay closer to the
DZ. Exiting downwind causes rapid drift away from the DZ. Pearl: Always calculate your opening point
based on the drift of the group, not just the individual.
Q6: To dock gently on a formation, a skydiver should:
A. Aim for the gripper and drive forward until contact is made.
B. Approach with drive, then flare (de-arch) to slow down immediately before contact. [CORRECT]
C. Crouch (arch hard) to slow down before the dock.
D. Use a flat turn to align and drive forward simultaneously.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Flaring (de-arching) creates drag and reduces forward speed, allowing for a soft "no-speed"
dock. Driving until contact usually results in a hard dock that destabilizes the formation. Pearl: "Fly to
the slot, not the grip." Arrive at zero relative speed.
Q7: A skydiver is performing a back-fly (back-sliding) maneuver. To move backward relative to the
ground:
A. They must arch the back and lift the chin.
B. They must cup the shoulders and point toes, driving with the heels. [CORRECT]
, C. They must extend arms forward and flutter kick.
D. They must sit in a seated position.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To back-fly (move backward feet-first while on the back), the skydiver cups their shoulders
and drives with their legs/heels into the relative wind. Arching on the back results in a belly-to-earth
backslide (face down). Pearl: Visualize pushing the wind off your heels to drive backward.
Q8: Which of the following is a critical safety check before attempting an angle flight jump?
A. Ensuring the jumpsuit has reinforced knees.
B. Confirming the intended flight path does not conflict with other groups on the same pass. [CORRECT]
C. Setting an audible alarm to 2,000 feet.
D. Removing the altimeter to reduce drag.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Angle flights cover massive horizontal distances and move fast. They often conflict with
traditional belly or freefly groups on the same pass if the spot and separation plan are not rigorously
coordinated. Pearl: Angle flyers "carve" through the sky; ground rendezvous separation is often
insufficient—use time separation.
Q9: What is the minimum USPA required altitude for deployment for a D-License holder during a night
jump?
A. 2,500 feet AGL.
B. 3,000 feet AGL.
C. 3,500 feet AGL. [CORRECT]
D. 4,000 feet AGL.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Per USPA BSRs, the minimum deployment altitude for night jumps is 3,500 feet AGL for all
license holders, regardless of license level, due to reduced visual cues and increased disorientation risks.
Pearl: Night jumps demand higher pull altitudes; give yourself extra time to orient the canopy and locate
the landing light.
