NUR 2755 / NUR 2755 Final Exam (Latest 2025/2026 Update) Multidimensional Care IV / MDC 4 | Complete Q&A with Verified Answers and Detailed Rationales | Burns, Neurological Disorders, Shock States, Respiratory Care, Endocrine Emergencies

INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD — This comprehensive EXAM resource for the NUR 2755 Multidimensional Care IV (MDC 4) Final Exam at Rasmussen University covers all essential topics for the 2025/2026 academic year . It features exam-style questions with verified answers and detailed rationales covering burn management and the Parkland Formula , neurological disorders including Alzheimer's disease, Parkinson's disease, multiple sclerosis, seizures, and increased intracranial pressure (ICP) , stroke (CVA) assessment and tPA administration, shock states (septic, hypovolemic, cardiogenic, neurogenic), respiratory conditions including COPD, pneumonia, pneumothorax, ARDS, and pulmonary embolism, endocrine emergencies (DKA, HHNS), fluid and electrolyte imbalances, acid-base disorders, spinal cord injury (SCI) and autonomic dysreflexia, meningitis, Guillain-Barré syndrome, myasthenia gravis, trauma and emergency care, and perioperative nursing care . NUR 2755 MDC 4 FINAL EXAM – COMPLETE Q&A REVIEW BURN MANAGEMENT AND THE PARKLAND FORMULA Question 1: A 32-year-old male arrives at the ED after a house fire with partial- and full-thickness burns covering 40% of his total body surface area (TBSA). Which initial intervention is the highest priority on arrival? A. Start IV normal saline at a moderate rate B. Remove burned clothing and cool the burns C. Begin enteral nutrition D. Apply topical silver sulfadiazine Correct Answer: B. Remove burned clothing and cool the burns Rationale: The immediate priority is to stop the burning process. Removing smoldering clothing and cooling the burns minimizes further thermal injury and tissue damage. Airway and breathing assessment must follow, but stopping the burn source is the first step. The mnemonic "Stop the Burn" aligns with initial emergency management priorities . Once the burn source is stopped, the primary survey (ABCs) proceeds, with fluid resuscitation calculated using the Parkland formula for burns 20% TBSA. Question 2: For an adult burn patient with 40% TBSA burns, the Parkland formula is used to guide initial fluid resuscitation. Which statement best describes how fluids should be administered? A. Give the calculated volume as a single bolus on arrival B. Give half of the 24-hour calculated volume in the first 8 hours from the time of injury C. Give all fluids as colloid during the first 24 hours D. Use the Parkland formula only for electrical burns Correct Answer: B. Give half of the 24-hour calculated volume in the first 8 hours from the time of injury Rationale: The Parkland formula calculates fluid requirements as: 4 mL × weight (kg) × % TBSA burned. Half of this calculated volume is administered over the first 8 hours from the time of injury (not from arrival), and the remaining half is administered over the next 16 hours. This timing ensures adequate resuscitation during the period of highest capillary leak and fluid shift . The formula is used for burns 20% TBSA, not specific to electrical burns. Crystalloids (LR or NS) are used initially, not colloids. Question 3: During burn resuscitation, the nurse monitors urine output as a key indicator of adequate perfusion. What is the target urine output for an adult burn patient? A. 0.1 mL/kg/hr B. 0.5–1 mL/kg/hr C. 2–3 mL/kg/hr D. 5 mL/kg/hr Correct Answer: B. 0.5–1 mL/kg/hr