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ATI FUNDAMENTALS PROCTORED MOCK EXAM 2026 : QUESTIONS AND RATIONALES/GRADED A+ UPDATE 100% CORRECT

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ATI FUNDAMENTALS PROCTORED MOCK EXAM 2026 : QUESTIONS AND RATIONALES/GRADED A+ UPDATE 100% CORRECT

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Voorbeeld van de inhoud

ATI FUNDAMENTALS
PROCTORED MOCK EXAM 2026 :
QUESTIONS AND
RATIONALES/GRADED A+
UPDATE 100% CORRECT


PART 1: Management of Care (Delegation, Ethics, Legal
Responsibilities)
1. A nurse is planning care for a group of clients. Which of the following tasks
should the nurse delegate to an assistive personnel (AP)?

• A. Changing the dressing for a client who has a stage 3 pressure injury
• B. Determining a client’s response to a diuretic
• C. Comparing radial pulses for a client who is postoperative
• D. Providing postmortem care to a client

Rationale: Postmortem care is a routine, non-invasive, and standardized task that
falls within the scope of practice for assistive personnel. Tasks that require
assessment, evaluation, nursing judgment, or sterile procedures (such as wound care)
cannot be delegated to an AP.

2. A nurse is delegating the ambulation of a client who had a knee arthroplasty
5 days ago to an AP. Which of the following information should the nurse share
with the AP? (Select All That Apply.)

• A. The roommate is up independently.
• B. The client ambulates with his slippers on over his antiembolic
stockings

, • C. The client uses a front-wheeled walker when ambulating
• D. The client had pain medication 30 min ago
• E. The client is allergic to codeine
• F. The client ate 50% of his breakfast this morning

Rationale: The nurse must provide the AP with specific, actionable information to
ensure safe delegation. This includes the client’s specific mobility equipment (walker),
appropriate footwear (slippers over stockings), and the timing of pain medication (to
ensure the client is comfortable enough to ambulate). Information about allergies
and food intake is relevant for overall care but is not directly essential for the AP to
ambulate the client safely.

3. An RN is making assignments for client care to an LPN at the beginning of
the shift. Which of the following assignments should the LPN question?

• A. Assisting a client who is 24hr post-op to use an incentive spirometer
• B. Administering IV push morphine to a client with post-operative pain
• C. Performing a sterile dressing change for a client with a surgical wound
• D. Collecting a clean-catch urine specimen

Rationale: In most states and facilities, LPNs are not permitted to administer IV push
medications. This task requires advanced assessment and critical thinking skills that
fall under the RN’s scope of practice. LPNs can typically administer IV piggyback
medications and monitor IV sites, but IV push is generally restricted.

4. A nurse is collaborating with a risk management team about potential legal
issues involving client care. The nurse should identify which of the following
situations is an example of negligence?

• A. A nurse administers a medication without first identifying the client.
• B. An assistive personnel discusses client care in the facility cafeteria with
visitors present.
• C. A nurse begins a blood transfusion without obtaining consent.
• D. A nurse fails to raise the side rails on a confused client’s bed, and the client
falls and fractures a hip.

Rationale: Negligence is the failure to act as a reasonably prudent person would
under similar circumstances, resulting in harm to another person. Failing to identify
the client before administering medication violates the basic safety standard of the
"Rights of Medication Administration" and could cause serious harm. Option D is also
negligence. However, based on standard fundamental exam patterns, medication
administration without identification is a classic example used to test this concept
because it is a direct breach of a clear, absolute professional duty.

, 5. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving a change-of-shift report for
four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A client who has acute abdominal pain of 4 on a scale from 0 to 10
• B. A client who has pneumonia and an oxygen saturation of 96%
• C. A client who has new onset of dyspnea 24hr after a total hip
arthroplasty
• D. A client who has a urinary tract infection and low-grade fever

Rationale: New onset dyspnea in a post-operative client is a potential sign of a
pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening complication. This is an airway/breathing
priority. The nurse must assess this client first. Stable vital signs (96% O2 saturation)
and controlled pain are lower priorities.

6. Which of the following clients may the RN assign to a Licensed Practical
Nurse (LPN)?

• A. Providing tracheostomy care for a stable client with pneumonia.
• B. Performing the initial admission assessment on a newly admitted client.
• C. Developing the plan of care for a client returning from surgery.
• D. Teaching a client how to self-administer insulin injections.

Rationale: LPNs can perform stable, standardized procedures like tracheostomy care
(suctioning, cleaning). Initial assessments, care plan development, and patient
teaching are the responsibility of the RN.

7. A nurse is documenting a client’s medical record. Which of the following
entries should the nurse record?

• A. "Oral temperature slightly elevated at 0800"
• B. "Administered pain medication"
• C. "Incision without redness or drainage"
• D. "Drank adequate amounts of fluid with meals"

Rationale: Documentation must be factual, objective, and complete. "Administered
pain medication" is an accurate, factual entry. "Slightly elevated" is vague and
subjective. "Adequate amounts" is subjective. The incision entry lacks the specific
assessment required (e.g., "incision dry and intact").


PART 2: Safety and Infection Control
8. A nurse is caring for a client who has influenza and has isolation precautions
in place. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent the
spread of infection?

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