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NURS 5433 FNP II Final Exam Review Family
Nursing UTA Actual Exam 2026/2027 – Complete
Exam-Style Questions with Detailed Rationales |
Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
[SECTION 1: Primary Care of Adults — Questions 1-25]
Q1: According to the 2017 ACC/AHA guidelines, what is the threshold for initiating
pharmacological therapy for a patient with Stage 2 Hypertension and no ASCVD risk factors?
A. Blood pressure ≥ 130/80 mmHg
B. Blood pressure ≥ 140/90 mmHg
C. Blood pressure ≥ 150/90 mmHg
D. Blood pressure ≥ 120/80 mmHg
Correct Answer: B
Q2: A 55-year-old female presents with hot flashes, night sweats, and amenorrhea. She is seeking
relief from vasomotor symptoms. What is the most appropriate first-line non-hormonal
pharmacologic treatment?
A. Estrogen-Progestin Therapy (HRT)
B. Paroxetine (SSRI)
C. Gabapentin
D. Clonidine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: While HRT (Option A) is the most effective treatment for vasomotor symptoms, it is
not first-line if the patient has contraindications or chooses non-hormonal options. Among non-
hormonal options, SSRIs/SNRIs like Paroxetine (B) have the strongest evidence base for
efficacy. Gabapentin (C) and Clonidine (D) are alternative options but generally have lower
efficacy or more side effect profiles compared to SSRIs for this specific indication.
,2
Q3: A 45-year-old patient presents for a routine physical. He has a BMI of 33 kg/m², blood
pressure of 128/82 mmHg, and fasting glucose of 100 mg/dL. According to the USPSTF, what
screening recommendation applies to him?
A. Screen for type 2 diabetes every 3 years.
B. Screen for type 2 diabetes annually.
C. No screening is needed as he is pre-diabetic only.
D. Screen for type 2 diabetes every 5 years.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The USPSTF recommends screening for abnormal blood glucose as part of
cardiovascular risk assessment in adults aged 35 to 70 years who are overweight or obese. The
patient is overweight (BMI > 30) and within the age range. Screening is generally recommended
at least every 3 years, but "Annually" (B) is often practiced in clinical settings for those with pre-
diabetes or metabolic syndrome, though USPSTF intervals vary. Given the options and the
presence of pre-diabetes (Glucose 100-125), annual monitoring is clinically appropriate to catch
progression.
Q4: Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for a 50-year-old male
with recurrent epigastric pain that improves with food and antacids?
A. Upper Endoscopy (EGD)
B. Upper GI Series
C. H. pylori stool antigen or Urea breath test
D. Abdominal Ultrasound
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For a patient with symptoms suggestive of Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD), testing for
Helicobacter pylori is a standard initial step to guide treatment. If H. pylori is positive,
eradication therapy is indicated. Endoscopy (A) is reserved for "alarm features" (weight loss,
anemia, bleeding, age > 60) or failed treatment. Upper GI (B) and Ultrasound (D) are less
sensitive for mucosal defects compared to EGD or infection testing.
,3
Q5: A 30-year-old female presents with recurrent vaginal itching and discharge. The wet mount
reveals clue cells. What is the diagnosis?
A. Bacterial Vaginosis (BV)
B. Vulvovaginal Candidiasis
C. Trichomoniasis
D. Gonorrhea
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presence of clue cells (vaginal epithelial cells studded with bacteria) on wet
mount is the hallmark of Bacterial Vaginosis. Candidiasis (B) shows hyphae/pseudohyphae;
Trichomoniasis (C) shows motile trichomonads. Gonorrhea (D) is diagnosed via NAAT, not wet
mount.
Q6: A 25-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of severe pain, swelling, and redness in the
first MTP joint (big toe). He reports heavy alcohol use the night before. What is the first-line
treatment for an acute attack?
A. Allopurinol
B. Febuxostat
C. Indomethacin
D. Probenecid
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The presentation describes acute gouty arthritis. First-line treatments for an acute gout
attack include NSAIDs (like Indomethacin), Corticosteroids, or Colchicine. Allopurinol (A) and
Febuxostat (B) are urate-lowering therapies used for chronic management but are contraindicated
during an acute attack as they can exacerbate symptoms. Probenecid (D) is a uricosuric agent for
chronic use.
Q7: A 40-year-old female presents with diffuse hair thinning over the scalp and a normal scalp
examination. Iron studies and TSH are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
, 4
A. Androgenetic Alopecia
B. Alopecia Areata
C. Telogen Effluvium
D. Tinea Capitis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Female pattern hair loss (Androgenetic Alopecia) typically presents as diffuse
thinning over the crown and widening of the part line, with a normal scalp. Telogen Effluvium
(C) usually follows a stressor (e.g., surgery, pregnancy) 3-6 months prior and causes increased
shedding. Alopecia Areata (B) presents as discrete patches of hair loss. Tinea Capitis (D)
involves scaling and inflammation.
Q8: A 52-year-old male with a history of smoking and chronic cough presents with hemoptysis.
What is the priority diagnostic step?
A. Sputum cytology
B. Chest X-ray
C. High-resolution CT (HRCT) of chest
D. Bronchoscopy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chest X-ray is the appropriate initial imaging test for a patient with hemoptysis and
risk factors for lung cancer. While CT (C) is more sensitive, it follows an abnormal X-ray or
persistent symptoms. Sputum cytology (A) is low yield. Bronchoscopy (D) is invasive and
reserved for specific indications or to localize bleeding.
Q9: What is the USPSTF recommendation regarding screening for abdominal aortic aneurysm
(AAA)?
A. One-time screening for all men aged 50-70.
B. One-time screening for men aged 65 to 75 who have ever smoked.
C. Annual screening for all men and women over 65.
NURS 5433 FNP II Final Exam Review Family
Nursing UTA Actual Exam 2026/2027 – Complete
Exam-Style Questions with Detailed Rationales |
Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
[SECTION 1: Primary Care of Adults — Questions 1-25]
Q1: According to the 2017 ACC/AHA guidelines, what is the threshold for initiating
pharmacological therapy for a patient with Stage 2 Hypertension and no ASCVD risk factors?
A. Blood pressure ≥ 130/80 mmHg
B. Blood pressure ≥ 140/90 mmHg
C. Blood pressure ≥ 150/90 mmHg
D. Blood pressure ≥ 120/80 mmHg
Correct Answer: B
Q2: A 55-year-old female presents with hot flashes, night sweats, and amenorrhea. She is seeking
relief from vasomotor symptoms. What is the most appropriate first-line non-hormonal
pharmacologic treatment?
A. Estrogen-Progestin Therapy (HRT)
B. Paroxetine (SSRI)
C. Gabapentin
D. Clonidine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: While HRT (Option A) is the most effective treatment for vasomotor symptoms, it is
not first-line if the patient has contraindications or chooses non-hormonal options. Among non-
hormonal options, SSRIs/SNRIs like Paroxetine (B) have the strongest evidence base for
efficacy. Gabapentin (C) and Clonidine (D) are alternative options but generally have lower
efficacy or more side effect profiles compared to SSRIs for this specific indication.
,2
Q3: A 45-year-old patient presents for a routine physical. He has a BMI of 33 kg/m², blood
pressure of 128/82 mmHg, and fasting glucose of 100 mg/dL. According to the USPSTF, what
screening recommendation applies to him?
A. Screen for type 2 diabetes every 3 years.
B. Screen for type 2 diabetes annually.
C. No screening is needed as he is pre-diabetic only.
D. Screen for type 2 diabetes every 5 years.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The USPSTF recommends screening for abnormal blood glucose as part of
cardiovascular risk assessment in adults aged 35 to 70 years who are overweight or obese. The
patient is overweight (BMI > 30) and within the age range. Screening is generally recommended
at least every 3 years, but "Annually" (B) is often practiced in clinical settings for those with pre-
diabetes or metabolic syndrome, though USPSTF intervals vary. Given the options and the
presence of pre-diabetes (Glucose 100-125), annual monitoring is clinically appropriate to catch
progression.
Q4: Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for a 50-year-old male
with recurrent epigastric pain that improves with food and antacids?
A. Upper Endoscopy (EGD)
B. Upper GI Series
C. H. pylori stool antigen or Urea breath test
D. Abdominal Ultrasound
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For a patient with symptoms suggestive of Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD), testing for
Helicobacter pylori is a standard initial step to guide treatment. If H. pylori is positive,
eradication therapy is indicated. Endoscopy (A) is reserved for "alarm features" (weight loss,
anemia, bleeding, age > 60) or failed treatment. Upper GI (B) and Ultrasound (D) are less
sensitive for mucosal defects compared to EGD or infection testing.
,3
Q5: A 30-year-old female presents with recurrent vaginal itching and discharge. The wet mount
reveals clue cells. What is the diagnosis?
A. Bacterial Vaginosis (BV)
B. Vulvovaginal Candidiasis
C. Trichomoniasis
D. Gonorrhea
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presence of clue cells (vaginal epithelial cells studded with bacteria) on wet
mount is the hallmark of Bacterial Vaginosis. Candidiasis (B) shows hyphae/pseudohyphae;
Trichomoniasis (C) shows motile trichomonads. Gonorrhea (D) is diagnosed via NAAT, not wet
mount.
Q6: A 25-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of severe pain, swelling, and redness in the
first MTP joint (big toe). He reports heavy alcohol use the night before. What is the first-line
treatment for an acute attack?
A. Allopurinol
B. Febuxostat
C. Indomethacin
D. Probenecid
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The presentation describes acute gouty arthritis. First-line treatments for an acute gout
attack include NSAIDs (like Indomethacin), Corticosteroids, or Colchicine. Allopurinol (A) and
Febuxostat (B) are urate-lowering therapies used for chronic management but are contraindicated
during an acute attack as they can exacerbate symptoms. Probenecid (D) is a uricosuric agent for
chronic use.
Q7: A 40-year-old female presents with diffuse hair thinning over the scalp and a normal scalp
examination. Iron studies and TSH are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
, 4
A. Androgenetic Alopecia
B. Alopecia Areata
C. Telogen Effluvium
D. Tinea Capitis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Female pattern hair loss (Androgenetic Alopecia) typically presents as diffuse
thinning over the crown and widening of the part line, with a normal scalp. Telogen Effluvium
(C) usually follows a stressor (e.g., surgery, pregnancy) 3-6 months prior and causes increased
shedding. Alopecia Areata (B) presents as discrete patches of hair loss. Tinea Capitis (D)
involves scaling and inflammation.
Q8: A 52-year-old male with a history of smoking and chronic cough presents with hemoptysis.
What is the priority diagnostic step?
A. Sputum cytology
B. Chest X-ray
C. High-resolution CT (HRCT) of chest
D. Bronchoscopy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chest X-ray is the appropriate initial imaging test for a patient with hemoptysis and
risk factors for lung cancer. While CT (C) is more sensitive, it follows an abnormal X-ray or
persistent symptoms. Sputum cytology (A) is low yield. Bronchoscopy (D) is invasive and
reserved for specific indications or to localize bleeding.
Q9: What is the USPSTF recommendation regarding screening for abdominal aortic aneurysm
(AAA)?
A. One-time screening for all men aged 50-70.
B. One-time screening for men aged 65 to 75 who have ever smoked.
C. Annual screening for all men and women over 65.
