AT ARLINGTON (UTA) ACTUAL EXAM Complete
Accurate Questions – Correct Detailed Answers – Pass
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PART 1: MIDTERM EXAM – Modules 1-3
Module 1: Foundations of FNP Practice & Health Promotion
Q1: A 42-year-old patient presents for their first wellness visit in five years. They have no
chronic conditions, normal BMI, and a family history of colon cancer in their father at
age 58. According to current USPSTF screening guidelines, which screening test should
you recommend initiating at this visit?
A. Fecal immunochemical test (FIT) annually, starting now
B. Colonoscopy every 10 years, starting at age 45
C. Low-dose CT scan for lung cancer
D. Abdominal ultrasound for abdominal aortic aneurysm
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. Current USPSTF guidelines recommend colorectal
cancer screening starting at age 45 for average-risk adults, and colonoscopy every 10
,years is one of the recommended modalities. While FIT is also appropriate, the question
asks what to initiate at this first visit, and colonoscopy is a standard first-line option that
also addresses the family history concern. This matches what we teach in NURS 5432
for preventive care in middle-aged adults.
Q2: During a well-child visit, the parents of a 12-month-old ask about the next set of
immunizations their child needs. According to the current CDC immunization schedule,
which vaccine is due at the 12-month visit?
A. MMR and varicella
B. Hepatitis A series (first dose)
C. Both MMR, varicella, and the first dose of Hepatitis A
D. DTaP booster only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C. At the 12-month well-child visit, the CDC schedule
recommends MMR (first dose), varicella (first dose), and the first dose of the Hepatitis A
series. DTaP is given at 15-18 months, not 12 months. This is standard pediatric primary
care content we cover in Module 1.
Q3: A 55-year-old female patient with no significant past medical history asks when she
should start mammogram screening. She has no family history of breast cancer. What
do current USPSTF guidelines recommend?
A. Begin biennial screening mammography at age 40
B. Begin annual screening mammography at age 45
,C. Begin biennial screening mammography at age 50
D. Shared decision-making about screening between ages 40-49, then biennial starting
at 50
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The best answer is A. Updated USPSTF guidelines now recommend that
women begin biennial screening mammography at age 40 for average-risk individuals.
This represents a shift from previous recommendations and is important current
knowledge for FNP practice in 2026/2027.
Q4: An FNP is establishing a new primary care practice in a rural community. Which of
the following best describes the scope of practice for an FNP in Texas regarding
prescriptive authority?
A. Full independent prescriptive authority without any collaborative agreement
B. Prescriptive authority only with a site-specific collaborative practice agreement with a
physician
C. Prescriptive authority with a collaborative practice agreement, but no site-specific
requirements
D. No prescriptive authority for Schedule II-V controlled substances
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. In Texas, FNPs must have a collaborative practice
agreement with a physician that is site-specific in order to prescribe medications,
including controlled substances. This is a key regulatory requirement that we
emphasize in NURS 5432 for Texas-based practice.
, Q5: A 35-year-old patient comes in for a wellness visit and reports they exercise 2-3
times per week, eat a Mediterranean-style diet, and have a BMI of 24. Their blood
pressure is 118/76 mmHg. According to USPSTF guidelines, what is the most
appropriate recommendation regarding aspirin for primary prevention of cardiovascular
disease?
A. Start low-dose aspirin 81 mg daily
B. Recommend against routine low-dose aspirin use
C. Start low-dose aspirin only if LDL is elevated
D. Start aspirin 325 mg daily
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. Current USPSTF guidelines recommend against
initiating low-dose aspirin for the primary prevention of cardiovascular disease in adults
aged 40-59 who are not at increased bleeding risk, and this patient has no significant
risk factors. The potential harms outweigh the benefits in this low-risk individual.
Q6: During a well-woman visit, a 24-year-old patient asks about cervical cancer
screening. She has never had an abnormal Pap smear and is in a monogamous
relationship. According to current USPSTF and ACOG guidelines, what do you
recommend?
A. Pap smear annually starting at age 21
B. Pap smear every 3 years starting at age 21, or co-testing every 5 years starting at age
30