RN ATI MATERNAL NEWBORN PROCTORED EXAM
2026/2027 | 36 Exam Sets Newest Multiple Versions |
100% Verified Answers | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
[VERSION A - EXAM SET 1 OF 36: Antepartum Assessment &
Complications (Q1-30)]
Q1. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 28 weeks gestation who reports
persistent headache, visual disturbances, and right upper quadrant pain. Her blood
pressure is 162/104 mmHg, and urine dipstick shows 3+ protein. Which action
should the nurse prioritize?
A. Administer oral methyldopa and schedule follow-up in 1 week
B. Initiate magnesium sulfate IV per protocol and notify the provider immediately
C. Instruct the client to rest on her left side and recheck blood pressure in 30 minutes
D. Administer a stat dose of hydralazine and prepare for immediate delivery
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This client presents with severe features of preeclampsia (BP ≥160/110,
headache, visual changes, RUQ pain, proteinuria ≥2+). Magnesium sulfate is the
anticonvulsant of choice for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia. Option A
delays critical intervention. Option C is insufficient for severe features. Option D
addresses blood pressure but not seizure prophylaxis, which is the priority. (ATI
Maternal Newborn, Ch. 9: Hypertensive Disorders)
Q2. A client at 32 weeks gestation with gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) has a
fasting blood glucose of 98 mg/dL and 2-hour postprandial of 158 mg/dL. Which
dietary instruction is most appropriate?
A. "You should consume 60% of calories from carbohydrates distributed across three
meals only"
B. "Eat 45-50% of calories from complex carbohydrates divided into three meals and
three snacks"
,C. "Eliminate all carbohydrate sources and focus on high-protein, high-fat meals"
D. "Fast for 12 hours before each blood glucose check to get accurate readings"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: GDM dietary management recommends 45-50% of calories from complex
carbohydrates, distributed across three meals and three snacks to maintain
euglycemia and prevent ketosis. Option A lacks snack distribution causing glucose
spikes. Option C causes ketosis and is unsafe. Option D is dangerous and provides
false fasting data. (ATI Maternal Newborn, Ch. 8: Diabetes in Pregnancy)
Q3. A nurse is caring for a Rh-negative client at 28 weeks gestation whose antibody
screen is negative. The father of the baby is Rh-positive. Which intervention is
appropriate?
A. Administer RhoGAM 300 mcg IM within 72 hours postpartum only
B. Administer RhoGAM 300 mcg IM at 28 weeks and again within 72 hours
postpartum
C. Administer RhoGAM 50 mcg IM at 28 weeks and repeat at delivery
D. No RhoGAM is needed since the antibody screen is negative
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Standard protocol for Rh-negative, unsensitized clients is RhoGAM 300
mcg at approximately 28 weeks gestation and within 72 hours postpartum (or at any
time of sensitizing event). Option A misses antepartum dose. Option C uses incorrect
dose. Option D is incorrect as prophylaxis is required. (ATI Maternal Newborn, Ch. 11:
Rh Incompatibility)
Q4. A pregnant client at 34 weeks reports painless, bright red vaginal bleeding.
Ultrasound reveals placenta previa. Which nursing intervention is the priority?
A. Perform a sterile vaginal examination to assess cervical dilation
B. Prepare the client for immediate vaginal delivery
,C. Maintain the client on bed rest with pelvic rest and monitor fetal heart rate
D. Administer oxytocin to augment labor and control bleeding
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Placenta previa presents with painless bleeding; vaginal examination is
contraindicated as it may cause catastrophic hemorrhage. Bed rest with pelvic rest
and continuous fetal monitoring are priorities. Option A is absolutely
contraindicated. Option B is unsafe for previa. Option D worsens bleeding. (ATI
Maternal Newborn, Ch. 10: Placental Abnormalities)
Q5. A client at 30 weeks gestation with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate
2 g/hr IV. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Urine output of 35 mL/hour
B. Deep tendon reflexes rated 2+
C. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/minute
D. Serum magnesium level of 6.2 mg/dL
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate toxicity signs include respiratory depression (<12
breaths/min), absent DTRs, decreased LOC, and oliguria (<25-30 mL/hr). Respiratory
rate of 10 indicates impending respiratory arrest from toxicity. Option A is borderline
acceptable. Option B is normal. Option D is therapeutic (therapeutic range 4-8
mg/dL). (ATI Maternal Newborn, Ch. 9: Magnesium Sulfate Monitoring)
Q6. A nurse is reviewing the prenatal record of a client at 12 weeks gestation. Which
finding indicates a need for referral to a maternal-fetal medicine specialist?
A. Client reports nausea and vomiting in the first trimester
B. Client has a history of one previous cesarean birth
C. Client's pre-pregnancy BMI is 32 kg/m²
D. Client has type 1 diabetes mellitus with HbA1c of 8.5%
, Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Type 1 diabetes with poor glycemic control (HbA1c >7%) significantly
increases risks for congenital anomalies, macrosomia, and stillbirth, requiring high-
risk specialist care. Option A is normal first trimester symptoms. Option B is low-risk
for TOLAC. Option C is obese but manageable in general prenatal care. (ATI Maternal
Newborn, Ch. 8: Medical Conditions in Pregnancy)
Q7. A client at 20 weeks gestation asks the nurse about the recommended weight
gain for her pregnancy. Her pre-pregnancy BMI was 19 kg/m². Which response is
correct?
A. "You should gain 11-20 pounds total for the entire pregnancy"
B. "You should gain 15-25 pounds total for the entire pregnancy"
C. "You should gain 25-35 pounds total for the entire pregnancy"
D. "You should gain 37-54 pounds total for the entire pregnancy"
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For underweight clients (BMI <18.5), recommended gain is 28-40 lbs;
normal weight (BMI 18.5-24.9) is 25-35 lbs; overweight (BMI 25-29.9) is 15-25 lbs;
obese (BMI ≥30) is 11-20 lbs. This client's BMI of 19 is normal weight. Option A is for
obese. Option B is for overweight. Option D is for underweight. (ATI Maternal
Newborn, Ch. 4: Prenatal Care)
Q8. A nurse is caring for a client with suspected placental abruption at 36 weeks
gestation. The client reports sudden, severe abdominal pain and has a rigid, tender
uterus. Fetal heart rate shows late decelerations. Which is the priority nursing action?
A. Administer terbutaline subcutaneously to stop uterine contractions
B. Place the client in left lateral position, apply oxygen, and prepare for emergency
delivery
C. Start IV magnesium sulfate for fetal neuroprotection
D. Perform Leopold maneuvers to determine fetal position
2026/2027 | 36 Exam Sets Newest Multiple Versions |
100% Verified Answers | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
[VERSION A - EXAM SET 1 OF 36: Antepartum Assessment &
Complications (Q1-30)]
Q1. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 28 weeks gestation who reports
persistent headache, visual disturbances, and right upper quadrant pain. Her blood
pressure is 162/104 mmHg, and urine dipstick shows 3+ protein. Which action
should the nurse prioritize?
A. Administer oral methyldopa and schedule follow-up in 1 week
B. Initiate magnesium sulfate IV per protocol and notify the provider immediately
C. Instruct the client to rest on her left side and recheck blood pressure in 30 minutes
D. Administer a stat dose of hydralazine and prepare for immediate delivery
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This client presents with severe features of preeclampsia (BP ≥160/110,
headache, visual changes, RUQ pain, proteinuria ≥2+). Magnesium sulfate is the
anticonvulsant of choice for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia. Option A
delays critical intervention. Option C is insufficient for severe features. Option D
addresses blood pressure but not seizure prophylaxis, which is the priority. (ATI
Maternal Newborn, Ch. 9: Hypertensive Disorders)
Q2. A client at 32 weeks gestation with gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) has a
fasting blood glucose of 98 mg/dL and 2-hour postprandial of 158 mg/dL. Which
dietary instruction is most appropriate?
A. "You should consume 60% of calories from carbohydrates distributed across three
meals only"
B. "Eat 45-50% of calories from complex carbohydrates divided into three meals and
three snacks"
,C. "Eliminate all carbohydrate sources and focus on high-protein, high-fat meals"
D. "Fast for 12 hours before each blood glucose check to get accurate readings"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: GDM dietary management recommends 45-50% of calories from complex
carbohydrates, distributed across three meals and three snacks to maintain
euglycemia and prevent ketosis. Option A lacks snack distribution causing glucose
spikes. Option C causes ketosis and is unsafe. Option D is dangerous and provides
false fasting data. (ATI Maternal Newborn, Ch. 8: Diabetes in Pregnancy)
Q3. A nurse is caring for a Rh-negative client at 28 weeks gestation whose antibody
screen is negative. The father of the baby is Rh-positive. Which intervention is
appropriate?
A. Administer RhoGAM 300 mcg IM within 72 hours postpartum only
B. Administer RhoGAM 300 mcg IM at 28 weeks and again within 72 hours
postpartum
C. Administer RhoGAM 50 mcg IM at 28 weeks and repeat at delivery
D. No RhoGAM is needed since the antibody screen is negative
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Standard protocol for Rh-negative, unsensitized clients is RhoGAM 300
mcg at approximately 28 weeks gestation and within 72 hours postpartum (or at any
time of sensitizing event). Option A misses antepartum dose. Option C uses incorrect
dose. Option D is incorrect as prophylaxis is required. (ATI Maternal Newborn, Ch. 11:
Rh Incompatibility)
Q4. A pregnant client at 34 weeks reports painless, bright red vaginal bleeding.
Ultrasound reveals placenta previa. Which nursing intervention is the priority?
A. Perform a sterile vaginal examination to assess cervical dilation
B. Prepare the client for immediate vaginal delivery
,C. Maintain the client on bed rest with pelvic rest and monitor fetal heart rate
D. Administer oxytocin to augment labor and control bleeding
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Placenta previa presents with painless bleeding; vaginal examination is
contraindicated as it may cause catastrophic hemorrhage. Bed rest with pelvic rest
and continuous fetal monitoring are priorities. Option A is absolutely
contraindicated. Option B is unsafe for previa. Option D worsens bleeding. (ATI
Maternal Newborn, Ch. 10: Placental Abnormalities)
Q5. A client at 30 weeks gestation with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate
2 g/hr IV. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Urine output of 35 mL/hour
B. Deep tendon reflexes rated 2+
C. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/minute
D. Serum magnesium level of 6.2 mg/dL
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate toxicity signs include respiratory depression (<12
breaths/min), absent DTRs, decreased LOC, and oliguria (<25-30 mL/hr). Respiratory
rate of 10 indicates impending respiratory arrest from toxicity. Option A is borderline
acceptable. Option B is normal. Option D is therapeutic (therapeutic range 4-8
mg/dL). (ATI Maternal Newborn, Ch. 9: Magnesium Sulfate Monitoring)
Q6. A nurse is reviewing the prenatal record of a client at 12 weeks gestation. Which
finding indicates a need for referral to a maternal-fetal medicine specialist?
A. Client reports nausea and vomiting in the first trimester
B. Client has a history of one previous cesarean birth
C. Client's pre-pregnancy BMI is 32 kg/m²
D. Client has type 1 diabetes mellitus with HbA1c of 8.5%
, Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Type 1 diabetes with poor glycemic control (HbA1c >7%) significantly
increases risks for congenital anomalies, macrosomia, and stillbirth, requiring high-
risk specialist care. Option A is normal first trimester symptoms. Option B is low-risk
for TOLAC. Option C is obese but manageable in general prenatal care. (ATI Maternal
Newborn, Ch. 8: Medical Conditions in Pregnancy)
Q7. A client at 20 weeks gestation asks the nurse about the recommended weight
gain for her pregnancy. Her pre-pregnancy BMI was 19 kg/m². Which response is
correct?
A. "You should gain 11-20 pounds total for the entire pregnancy"
B. "You should gain 15-25 pounds total for the entire pregnancy"
C. "You should gain 25-35 pounds total for the entire pregnancy"
D. "You should gain 37-54 pounds total for the entire pregnancy"
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: For underweight clients (BMI <18.5), recommended gain is 28-40 lbs;
normal weight (BMI 18.5-24.9) is 25-35 lbs; overweight (BMI 25-29.9) is 15-25 lbs;
obese (BMI ≥30) is 11-20 lbs. This client's BMI of 19 is normal weight. Option A is for
obese. Option B is for overweight. Option D is for underweight. (ATI Maternal
Newborn, Ch. 4: Prenatal Care)
Q8. A nurse is caring for a client with suspected placental abruption at 36 weeks
gestation. The client reports sudden, severe abdominal pain and has a rigid, tender
uterus. Fetal heart rate shows late decelerations. Which is the priority nursing action?
A. Administer terbutaline subcutaneously to stop uterine contractions
B. Place the client in left lateral position, apply oxygen, and prepare for emergency
delivery
C. Start IV magnesium sulfate for fetal neuroprotection
D. Perform Leopold maneuvers to determine fetal position
