1
REX-PN Exam & Practice Exam NEWEST
2025/2026 Actual Exam – Complete Real Exam
Questions | 100% Verified | Graded A+ Detailed
Rationales – Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
[SECTION 1: Safe & Effective Care Environment — Questions 1-50]
Q1: The Practical Nurse (PN) is assigning tasks to an Unregulated Care Provider (UAP). Which
task is within the scope of practice for the UAP to perform?
A. Performing the initial admission assessment for a new client.
B. Measuring intake and output for a stable client.
C. Administering oral medications to a client with diabetes.
D. Changing the sterile dressing on a central line.
Correct Answer: B [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Measuring intake and output is a standardized, non-invasive task that falls within the
scope of practice for a UAP, provided the client is stable. The PN delegates the task based on the
principles of right task, right circumstance, and right person. Options A, C, and D require nursing
assessment, judgment, or specialized sterile skills that are outside the UAP scope.
Q2: A client scheduled for surgery has signed the informed consent form. What is the primary
responsibility of the nurse regarding the consent?
A. To explain the surgical procedure and its risks in detail.
B. To ensure the client understands the information provided by the physician.
C. To witness the client's signature and ensure they are of legal age and mental capacity.
D. To obtain the consent if the physician is unavailable.
Correct Answer: C [CORRECT]
,2
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse’s role is to witness the signature of a competent client and verify that the
consent was obtained voluntarily. The physician is responsible for explaining the procedure and
risks to the client. Options A and B are the physician's responsibility. Option D is incorrect as
only the provider performing the procedure should obtain consent.
Q3: A client is diagnosed with Clostridium difficile (C. diff). Which transmission-based
precautions are required?
A. Contact precautions.
B. Droplet precautions.
C. Airborne precautions.
D. Standard precautions only.
Correct Answer: A [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: C. diff is transmitted via direct contact with spores or through the fecal-oral route,
necessitating Contact Precautions (gown and gloves) and the use of soap and water for hand
hygiene. Option B is for pathogens spread by droplets (e.g., influenza). Option C is for airborne
pathogens (e.g., TB). Option D is insufficient for C. diff.
Q4: The nurse is preparing to administer a medication via a nasogastric tube. Which action by
the nurse indicates a need for intervention?
A. Checking tube placement by aspirating gastric contents and checking pH.
B. Crushing enteric-coated tablets to administer via the tube.
C. Mixing the crushed medication with water before administering.
D. Flushing the tube with water before and after medication administration.
Correct Answer: B [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
,3
Rationale: Enteric-coated or sustained-release (SR/ER) medications should generally not be
crushed because it destroys the coating intended to control absorption, leading to potential
toxicity or inefficacy. Options A, C, and D are correct steps for safe NG medication
administration.
Q5: A client has a prescription for soft wrist restraints. The nurse delegates the application of the
restraints to a UAP. What is the nurse's responsibility?
A. The nurse can delegate the application as it is a routine task.
B. The nurse cannot delegate the application of restraints; it is a nursing responsibility.
C. The nurse must instruct the UAP and then assume all liability.
D. The nurse does not need to check the client once the restraints are applied.
Correct Answer: B [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Application of restraints requires nursing assessment and judgment regarding safety
and placement. While some jurisdictions may allow delegation of specific tasks under
supervision, generally, the initiation of a restraint requires the RN/LPN to ensure it is applied
correctly and safely. Options A and C are incorrect because the nurse remains responsible for the
delegation and client safety.
Q6: The nurse is caring for a client who is on Contact Precautions for Methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which action is correct?
A. Wear a gown and gloves upon entering the room.
B. Wear an N95 respirator mask.
C. Place the client in a negative pressure room.
D. Dedicate equipment (e.g., stethoscope) to this client only.
Correct Answer: A [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: A
, 4
Rationale: Contact Precautions require the use of gown and gloves upon entering the room to
prevent the spread of bacteria via contact. Option B is for Airborne Precautions. Option C is for
Airborne Precautions. Option D is a best practice but not always feasible; however, PPE is the
mandatory standard.
Q7: The nurse is making client rounds. Which client should the nurse see FIRST?
A. A client 2 days post-op reporting pain at a level of 3/10.
B. A client with asthma reporting wheezing after using their inhaler.
C. A client who was just admitted with a fractured femur.
D. A client requesting a drink of water.
Correct Answer: B [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client with asthma wheezing after using their inhaler is experiencing respiratory
distress, which is an airway/breathing priority over other needs. Option A has stable pain. Option
C needs admission assessment but is not immediately life-threatening. Option D is a lower
priority.
Q8: A client with a history of falls is being assessed using the Morse Fall Scale. Which factor is
included in this assessment?
A. History of visual impairment.
B. Presence of secondary diagnosis.
C. Number of times the client has fallen in the past year.
D. Client’s gait pattern.
Correct Answer: B [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Morse Fall Scale includes factors such as secondary diagnosis, ambulatory aids,
IV therapy, gait/transferring status, and mental status. Option C is part of the Hendrich II Fall
REX-PN Exam & Practice Exam NEWEST
2025/2026 Actual Exam – Complete Real Exam
Questions | 100% Verified | Graded A+ Detailed
Rationales – Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
[SECTION 1: Safe & Effective Care Environment — Questions 1-50]
Q1: The Practical Nurse (PN) is assigning tasks to an Unregulated Care Provider (UAP). Which
task is within the scope of practice for the UAP to perform?
A. Performing the initial admission assessment for a new client.
B. Measuring intake and output for a stable client.
C. Administering oral medications to a client with diabetes.
D. Changing the sterile dressing on a central line.
Correct Answer: B [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Measuring intake and output is a standardized, non-invasive task that falls within the
scope of practice for a UAP, provided the client is stable. The PN delegates the task based on the
principles of right task, right circumstance, and right person. Options A, C, and D require nursing
assessment, judgment, or specialized sterile skills that are outside the UAP scope.
Q2: A client scheduled for surgery has signed the informed consent form. What is the primary
responsibility of the nurse regarding the consent?
A. To explain the surgical procedure and its risks in detail.
B. To ensure the client understands the information provided by the physician.
C. To witness the client's signature and ensure they are of legal age and mental capacity.
D. To obtain the consent if the physician is unavailable.
Correct Answer: C [CORRECT]
,2
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse’s role is to witness the signature of a competent client and verify that the
consent was obtained voluntarily. The physician is responsible for explaining the procedure and
risks to the client. Options A and B are the physician's responsibility. Option D is incorrect as
only the provider performing the procedure should obtain consent.
Q3: A client is diagnosed with Clostridium difficile (C. diff). Which transmission-based
precautions are required?
A. Contact precautions.
B. Droplet precautions.
C. Airborne precautions.
D. Standard precautions only.
Correct Answer: A [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: C. diff is transmitted via direct contact with spores or through the fecal-oral route,
necessitating Contact Precautions (gown and gloves) and the use of soap and water for hand
hygiene. Option B is for pathogens spread by droplets (e.g., influenza). Option C is for airborne
pathogens (e.g., TB). Option D is insufficient for C. diff.
Q4: The nurse is preparing to administer a medication via a nasogastric tube. Which action by
the nurse indicates a need for intervention?
A. Checking tube placement by aspirating gastric contents and checking pH.
B. Crushing enteric-coated tablets to administer via the tube.
C. Mixing the crushed medication with water before administering.
D. Flushing the tube with water before and after medication administration.
Correct Answer: B [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
,3
Rationale: Enteric-coated or sustained-release (SR/ER) medications should generally not be
crushed because it destroys the coating intended to control absorption, leading to potential
toxicity or inefficacy. Options A, C, and D are correct steps for safe NG medication
administration.
Q5: A client has a prescription for soft wrist restraints. The nurse delegates the application of the
restraints to a UAP. What is the nurse's responsibility?
A. The nurse can delegate the application as it is a routine task.
B. The nurse cannot delegate the application of restraints; it is a nursing responsibility.
C. The nurse must instruct the UAP and then assume all liability.
D. The nurse does not need to check the client once the restraints are applied.
Correct Answer: B [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Application of restraints requires nursing assessment and judgment regarding safety
and placement. While some jurisdictions may allow delegation of specific tasks under
supervision, generally, the initiation of a restraint requires the RN/LPN to ensure it is applied
correctly and safely. Options A and C are incorrect because the nurse remains responsible for the
delegation and client safety.
Q6: The nurse is caring for a client who is on Contact Precautions for Methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which action is correct?
A. Wear a gown and gloves upon entering the room.
B. Wear an N95 respirator mask.
C. Place the client in a negative pressure room.
D. Dedicate equipment (e.g., stethoscope) to this client only.
Correct Answer: A [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: A
, 4
Rationale: Contact Precautions require the use of gown and gloves upon entering the room to
prevent the spread of bacteria via contact. Option B is for Airborne Precautions. Option C is for
Airborne Precautions. Option D is a best practice but not always feasible; however, PPE is the
mandatory standard.
Q7: The nurse is making client rounds. Which client should the nurse see FIRST?
A. A client 2 days post-op reporting pain at a level of 3/10.
B. A client with asthma reporting wheezing after using their inhaler.
C. A client who was just admitted with a fractured femur.
D. A client requesting a drink of water.
Correct Answer: B [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client with asthma wheezing after using their inhaler is experiencing respiratory
distress, which is an airway/breathing priority over other needs. Option A has stable pain. Option
C needs admission assessment but is not immediately life-threatening. Option D is a lower
priority.
Q8: A client with a history of falls is being assessed using the Morse Fall Scale. Which factor is
included in this assessment?
A. History of visual impairment.
B. Presence of secondary diagnosis.
C. Number of times the client has fallen in the past year.
D. Client’s gait pattern.
Correct Answer: B [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Morse Fall Scale includes factors such as secondary diagnosis, ambulatory aids,
IV therapy, gait/transferring status, and mental status. Option C is part of the Hendrich II Fall
