ATI PN Fundamentals Proctored Examination
2026/2027 Next Generation NCLEX Items
ACTUAL EXAM 2026/2027 | ATI PN
Fundamentals NGN | Verified Q&A | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Area 1 – Safety & Infection Control (Questions 1–15)
Q1: A nurse is caring for a patient with active pulmonary tuberculosis. Which type of precautions should
the nurse implement?
A. Contact precautions
B. Droplet precautions
C. Airborne precautions [CORRECT]
D. Standard precautions only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pulmonary tuberculosis is transmitted via small airborne droplet nuclei, requiring airborne
precautions including an N95 respirator and negative pressure room.
Q2: A nurse is preparing to administer medication to a patient. What are the two required patient
identifiers?
A. Name and room number
B. Name and date of birth [CORRECT]
C. Name and diagnosis
D. Room number and medical record number
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Joint Commission requires two patient identifiers for all medication administration;
name and date of birth are the standard identifiers used to verify patient identity and prevent
medication errors.
,Q3: A patient with Clostridioides difficile infection requires which type of precautions?
A. Airborne precautions
B. Droplet precautions
C. Contact precautions [CORRECT]
D. Protective isolation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: C. difficile is transmitted via contact with contaminated surfaces and fecal-oral route; contact
precautions (gown and gloves) are required, along with soap and water hand hygiene since alcohol-
based sanitizers are ineffective against spores.
Q4: A nurse discovers a fire in a patient's room. What is the first action according to RACE?
A. Alarm
B. Contain
C. Rescue [CORRECT]
D. Extinguish
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: RACE stands for Rescue (remove patients from immediate danger), Alarm (activate the fire
alarm), Contain (close doors and windows), Extinguish (use fire extinguisher if safe); rescue is always the
first priority.
Q5: A patient has a Morse Fall Scale score of 65. What does this indicate?
A. Low fall risk
B. Moderate fall risk
C. High fall risk [CORRECT]
D. No fall risk
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Morse Fall Scale scores ≥50 indicate high fall risk; this patient requires high-risk fall
precautions including bed alarms, non-skid socks, low bed position, and frequent rounding.
Q6: A nurse is applying a physical restraint to a patient. How often must the nurse check the patient?
A. Every 15 minutes
B. Every 30 minutes [CORRECT]
,C. Every hour
D. Every 2 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Patients in physical restraints must be monitored every 15-30 minutes for circulation, skin
integrity, and basic needs; restraints must be released and range of motion performed every 2 hours.
Q7: A nurse is caring for a patient with measles (rubeola). What PPE is required?
A. Surgical mask and gloves
B. N95 respirator and negative pressure room [CORRECT]
C. Gown and gloves only
D. Face shield only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Measles (rubeola) is transmitted via airborne route; an N95 respirator and negative pressure
room are required; measles is one of the most contagious infectious diseases with airborne
transmission.
Q8: A nurse is disposing of a used syringe. Where should it be placed?
A. Regular trash can
B. Biohazard bag
C. Sharps container [CORRECT]
D. Recycling bin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Used needles and syringes must be disposed of immediately in an approved sharps container
to prevent needlestick injuries; sharps containers should be puncture-resistant, leak-proof, and labeled.
Q9: A patient is on contact precautions for MRSA. Which action is correct?
A. Wear a surgical mask when entering the room
B. Wear a gown and gloves when entering the room [CORRECT]
C. Wear an N95 respirator
D. No PPE needed if not touching the patient
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Contact precautions for MRSA require gown and gloves when entering the patient's room; a
, mask is not required unless the patient has additional precautions or the nurse is performing aerosol-
generating procedures.
Q10: A nurse is using a fire extinguisher. What does PASS stand for?
A. Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep [CORRECT]
B. Push, Aim, Spray, Sweep
C. Pull, Aim, Spray, Stop
D. Push, Aim, Squeeze, Stop
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: PASS stands for Pull (the pin), Aim (at the base of the fire), Squeeze (the handle), Sweep (side
to side); this is the standard technique for using a portable fire extinguisher.
Q11: A patient is confused and attempts to get out of bed without assistance. What is the least
restrictive intervention?
A. Four-point restraints
B. Bed alarm and frequent rounding [CORRECT]
C. Chemical sedation
D. Locked unit door
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The least restrictive intervention should always be attempted first; bed alarms, frequent
rounding, low bed position, and non-skid socks are less restrictive than physical or chemical restraints.
Q12: A nurse is performing hand hygiene. How long should alcohol-based hand rub be rubbed?
A. 10 seconds
B. 20 seconds [CORRECT]
C. 30 seconds
D. 1 minute
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Alcohol-based hand rub should be applied to all surfaces of the hands and rubbed until dry,
approximately 20 seconds; this is the standard duration for effective hand hygiene.
Q13: A patient with influenza requires which type of precautions?
2026/2027 Next Generation NCLEX Items
ACTUAL EXAM 2026/2027 | ATI PN
Fundamentals NGN | Verified Q&A | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Area 1 – Safety & Infection Control (Questions 1–15)
Q1: A nurse is caring for a patient with active pulmonary tuberculosis. Which type of precautions should
the nurse implement?
A. Contact precautions
B. Droplet precautions
C. Airborne precautions [CORRECT]
D. Standard precautions only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pulmonary tuberculosis is transmitted via small airborne droplet nuclei, requiring airborne
precautions including an N95 respirator and negative pressure room.
Q2: A nurse is preparing to administer medication to a patient. What are the two required patient
identifiers?
A. Name and room number
B. Name and date of birth [CORRECT]
C. Name and diagnosis
D. Room number and medical record number
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Joint Commission requires two patient identifiers for all medication administration;
name and date of birth are the standard identifiers used to verify patient identity and prevent
medication errors.
,Q3: A patient with Clostridioides difficile infection requires which type of precautions?
A. Airborne precautions
B. Droplet precautions
C. Contact precautions [CORRECT]
D. Protective isolation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: C. difficile is transmitted via contact with contaminated surfaces and fecal-oral route; contact
precautions (gown and gloves) are required, along with soap and water hand hygiene since alcohol-
based sanitizers are ineffective against spores.
Q4: A nurse discovers a fire in a patient's room. What is the first action according to RACE?
A. Alarm
B. Contain
C. Rescue [CORRECT]
D. Extinguish
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: RACE stands for Rescue (remove patients from immediate danger), Alarm (activate the fire
alarm), Contain (close doors and windows), Extinguish (use fire extinguisher if safe); rescue is always the
first priority.
Q5: A patient has a Morse Fall Scale score of 65. What does this indicate?
A. Low fall risk
B. Moderate fall risk
C. High fall risk [CORRECT]
D. No fall risk
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Morse Fall Scale scores ≥50 indicate high fall risk; this patient requires high-risk fall
precautions including bed alarms, non-skid socks, low bed position, and frequent rounding.
Q6: A nurse is applying a physical restraint to a patient. How often must the nurse check the patient?
A. Every 15 minutes
B. Every 30 minutes [CORRECT]
,C. Every hour
D. Every 2 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Patients in physical restraints must be monitored every 15-30 minutes for circulation, skin
integrity, and basic needs; restraints must be released and range of motion performed every 2 hours.
Q7: A nurse is caring for a patient with measles (rubeola). What PPE is required?
A. Surgical mask and gloves
B. N95 respirator and negative pressure room [CORRECT]
C. Gown and gloves only
D. Face shield only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Measles (rubeola) is transmitted via airborne route; an N95 respirator and negative pressure
room are required; measles is one of the most contagious infectious diseases with airborne
transmission.
Q8: A nurse is disposing of a used syringe. Where should it be placed?
A. Regular trash can
B. Biohazard bag
C. Sharps container [CORRECT]
D. Recycling bin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Used needles and syringes must be disposed of immediately in an approved sharps container
to prevent needlestick injuries; sharps containers should be puncture-resistant, leak-proof, and labeled.
Q9: A patient is on contact precautions for MRSA. Which action is correct?
A. Wear a surgical mask when entering the room
B. Wear a gown and gloves when entering the room [CORRECT]
C. Wear an N95 respirator
D. No PPE needed if not touching the patient
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Contact precautions for MRSA require gown and gloves when entering the patient's room; a
, mask is not required unless the patient has additional precautions or the nurse is performing aerosol-
generating procedures.
Q10: A nurse is using a fire extinguisher. What does PASS stand for?
A. Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep [CORRECT]
B. Push, Aim, Spray, Sweep
C. Pull, Aim, Spray, Stop
D. Push, Aim, Squeeze, Stop
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: PASS stands for Pull (the pin), Aim (at the base of the fire), Squeeze (the handle), Sweep (side
to side); this is the standard technique for using a portable fire extinguisher.
Q11: A patient is confused and attempts to get out of bed without assistance. What is the least
restrictive intervention?
A. Four-point restraints
B. Bed alarm and frequent rounding [CORRECT]
C. Chemical sedation
D. Locked unit door
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The least restrictive intervention should always be attempted first; bed alarms, frequent
rounding, low bed position, and non-skid socks are less restrictive than physical or chemical restraints.
Q12: A nurse is performing hand hygiene. How long should alcohol-based hand rub be rubbed?
A. 10 seconds
B. 20 seconds [CORRECT]
C. 30 seconds
D. 1 minute
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Alcohol-based hand rub should be applied to all surfaces of the hands and rubbed until dry,
approximately 20 seconds; this is the standard duration for effective hand hygiene.
Q13: A patient with influenza requires which type of precautions?
