EMT FISDAP READINESS EXAM 2 PRACTICE TEST
2026/2027 | UPDATED EMT STUDY GUIDE WITH
VERIFIED ANSWERS, DETAILED RATIONALES &
EMS CERTIFICATION PREPARATION MATERIAL
(INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF)
• This practice test mirrors the FISDAP EMT Readiness Exam format with 200
verified questions covering all core EMT competency domains — use it to simulate
real exam conditions by timing yourself and reviewing EXPERT RATIONALE only
after completing each section.
• Each question includes five answer choices (A–E), a clearly marked correct answer,
and a detailed EXPERT RATIONALE — study actively by reading every EXPERT
RATIONALE whether you got the question right or wrong to reinforce clinical
reasoning.
EMT FISDAP READINESS EXAM 2 — PRACTICE TEST 2026/2027
200 Questions | Updated Study Guide | EMS Certification Preparation
1. A patient is unresponsive and not breathing normally. You have confirmed
there is no pulse. What is your first action?
A. Open the airway with a head-tilt chin-lift
B. Apply the AED immediately
C. Begin high-quality chest compressions
D. Insert an oropharyngeal airway
E. Deliver two rescue breaths
✓ Correct Answer: C. Begin high-quality chest compressions EXPERT
RATIONALE: Current AHA guidelines prioritize chest compressions first (C-A-B).
Compressions maintain perfusion to vital organs and should begin immediately
upon confirming pulselessness. The AED should be applied as soon as available,
but compressions take priority.
,2. Which of the following best describes the primary function of the EMT?
A. Diagnosing illness and prescribing treatment
B. Stabilizing and transporting patients to definitive care
C. Providing definitive treatment in the field
D. Performing surgical procedures in emergencies
E. Administering all medications on scene
✓ Correct Answer: B. Stabilizing and transporting patients to definitive care
EXPERT RATIONALE: EMTs are trained to assess, stabilize, and safely transport
patients to an appropriate medical facility. Diagnosis and definitive treatment are
roles reserved for physicians and advanced providers.
3. A 45-year-old male complains of crushing chest pain radiating to the left
arm, diaphoresis, and nausea. What is the most likely cause?
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Aortic dissection
C. Acute myocardial infarction
D. Spontaneous pneumothorax
E. Pericarditis
✓ Correct Answer: C. Acute myocardial infarction EXPERT RATIONALE: Classic
AMI symptoms include crushing chest pain radiating to the left arm or jaw,
diaphoresis, nausea, and shortness of breath. Immediate oxygen (if SpO2 <94%),
aspirin, and rapid transport to a PCI-capable facility are priorities.
4. What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult at rest?
A. 6–10 breaths per minute
,B. 12–20 breaths per minute
C. 20–30 breaths per minute
D. 25–35 breaths per minute
E. 30–40 breaths per minute
✓ Correct Answer: B. 12–20 breaths per minute EXPERT RATIONALE: Normal
adult respiratory rate is 12–20 breaths per minute. Rates below 12 (bradypnea) or
above 20 (tachypnea) may indicate respiratory compromise and require further
assessment.
5. A patient has a blood pressure of 70/40 mmHg, skin that is cool and
clammy, and an altered mental status. These findings are MOST consistent
with:
A. Hypertensive emergency
B. Neurogenic shock
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Compensated shock
E. Decompensated shock
✓ Correct Answer: E. Decompensated shock EXPERT RATIONALE:
Decompensated (irreversible) shock is characterized by a significant drop in blood
pressure, altered mental status, and poor skin signs (cool, clammy, pale). At this
stage the body can no longer maintain perfusion through compensatory
mechanisms.
6. Which of the following is the MOST reliable indicator of adequate artificial
ventilation in an adult?
A. Rise and fall of the chest
B. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute
, C. Skin color improving to pink
D. Absence of gurgling sounds
E. Pulse oximetry reading of 90%
✓ Correct Answer: A. Rise and fall of the chest EXPERT RATIONALE: Visible chest
rise with each ventilation is the most reliable indicator that adequate tidal volume is
being delivered. Pulse oximetry may lag and other signs are secondary.
7. An adult patient requires CPR. What is the correct compression-to-
ventilation ratio for a single rescuer?
A. 15:2
B. 30:1
C. 30:2
D. 15:1
E. 5:1
✓ Correct Answer: C. 30:2 EXPERT RATIONALE: For a single rescuer performing
CPR on an adult, the ratio is 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. This ratio maximizes
coronary perfusion pressure by minimizing interruptions to compressions.
8. You arrive on scene and find a 3-year-old who is unresponsive, not
breathing, and has no pulse. What compression-to-ventilation ratio should
you use as a single rescuer?
A. 30:2
B. 15:2
C. 5:1
D. 3:1
E. 20:2
2026/2027 | UPDATED EMT STUDY GUIDE WITH
VERIFIED ANSWERS, DETAILED RATIONALES &
EMS CERTIFICATION PREPARATION MATERIAL
(INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF)
• This practice test mirrors the FISDAP EMT Readiness Exam format with 200
verified questions covering all core EMT competency domains — use it to simulate
real exam conditions by timing yourself and reviewing EXPERT RATIONALE only
after completing each section.
• Each question includes five answer choices (A–E), a clearly marked correct answer,
and a detailed EXPERT RATIONALE — study actively by reading every EXPERT
RATIONALE whether you got the question right or wrong to reinforce clinical
reasoning.
EMT FISDAP READINESS EXAM 2 — PRACTICE TEST 2026/2027
200 Questions | Updated Study Guide | EMS Certification Preparation
1. A patient is unresponsive and not breathing normally. You have confirmed
there is no pulse. What is your first action?
A. Open the airway with a head-tilt chin-lift
B. Apply the AED immediately
C. Begin high-quality chest compressions
D. Insert an oropharyngeal airway
E. Deliver two rescue breaths
✓ Correct Answer: C. Begin high-quality chest compressions EXPERT
RATIONALE: Current AHA guidelines prioritize chest compressions first (C-A-B).
Compressions maintain perfusion to vital organs and should begin immediately
upon confirming pulselessness. The AED should be applied as soon as available,
but compressions take priority.
,2. Which of the following best describes the primary function of the EMT?
A. Diagnosing illness and prescribing treatment
B. Stabilizing and transporting patients to definitive care
C. Providing definitive treatment in the field
D. Performing surgical procedures in emergencies
E. Administering all medications on scene
✓ Correct Answer: B. Stabilizing and transporting patients to definitive care
EXPERT RATIONALE: EMTs are trained to assess, stabilize, and safely transport
patients to an appropriate medical facility. Diagnosis and definitive treatment are
roles reserved for physicians and advanced providers.
3. A 45-year-old male complains of crushing chest pain radiating to the left
arm, diaphoresis, and nausea. What is the most likely cause?
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Aortic dissection
C. Acute myocardial infarction
D. Spontaneous pneumothorax
E. Pericarditis
✓ Correct Answer: C. Acute myocardial infarction EXPERT RATIONALE: Classic
AMI symptoms include crushing chest pain radiating to the left arm or jaw,
diaphoresis, nausea, and shortness of breath. Immediate oxygen (if SpO2 <94%),
aspirin, and rapid transport to a PCI-capable facility are priorities.
4. What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult at rest?
A. 6–10 breaths per minute
,B. 12–20 breaths per minute
C. 20–30 breaths per minute
D. 25–35 breaths per minute
E. 30–40 breaths per minute
✓ Correct Answer: B. 12–20 breaths per minute EXPERT RATIONALE: Normal
adult respiratory rate is 12–20 breaths per minute. Rates below 12 (bradypnea) or
above 20 (tachypnea) may indicate respiratory compromise and require further
assessment.
5. A patient has a blood pressure of 70/40 mmHg, skin that is cool and
clammy, and an altered mental status. These findings are MOST consistent
with:
A. Hypertensive emergency
B. Neurogenic shock
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Compensated shock
E. Decompensated shock
✓ Correct Answer: E. Decompensated shock EXPERT RATIONALE:
Decompensated (irreversible) shock is characterized by a significant drop in blood
pressure, altered mental status, and poor skin signs (cool, clammy, pale). At this
stage the body can no longer maintain perfusion through compensatory
mechanisms.
6. Which of the following is the MOST reliable indicator of adequate artificial
ventilation in an adult?
A. Rise and fall of the chest
B. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute
, C. Skin color improving to pink
D. Absence of gurgling sounds
E. Pulse oximetry reading of 90%
✓ Correct Answer: A. Rise and fall of the chest EXPERT RATIONALE: Visible chest
rise with each ventilation is the most reliable indicator that adequate tidal volume is
being delivered. Pulse oximetry may lag and other signs are secondary.
7. An adult patient requires CPR. What is the correct compression-to-
ventilation ratio for a single rescuer?
A. 15:2
B. 30:1
C. 30:2
D. 15:1
E. 5:1
✓ Correct Answer: C. 30:2 EXPERT RATIONALE: For a single rescuer performing
CPR on an adult, the ratio is 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. This ratio maximizes
coronary perfusion pressure by minimizing interruptions to compressions.
8. You arrive on scene and find a 3-year-old who is unresponsive, not
breathing, and has no pulse. What compression-to-ventilation ratio should
you use as a single rescuer?
A. 30:2
B. 15:2
C. 5:1
D. 3:1
E. 20:2
