NSE 211 MID -TERM EXAM NEWEST 2026 ACTUAL
EXAM| NSE 211 MID-TERM EXAM REVIEW WITH
COMPLETE 250 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
ALREADY GRADED A+ (BRAND NEW!!)
1. A client with Hodgkin’s lymphoma reports painless
lymphadenopathy. The most common initial site is:
Correct Answer: C) Cervical nodes
Rationale: Hodgkin’s lymphoma typically presents with painless,
firm, rubbery lymphadenopathy in the cervical or supraclavicular
region. Mediastinal involvement occurs later, while axillary and
inguinal nodes are less common initially.
2. A client receiving chemotherapy reports nausea and vomiting
24 hours after treatment. This is classified as:
Correct Answer: Delayed emesis
Rationale: Delayed emesis occurs >24 hours after
chemotherapy, often days 2–5. Acute emesis happens within 24
hours; anticipatory occurs before treatment.
3. Which lab finding is most concerning in a client receiving
cisplatin?
Correct Answer: Serum creatinine 2.5 mg/dL
1
,Rationale: Cisplatin is nephrotoxic. Normal creatinine ~0.6–1.2
mg/dL; 2.5 indicates acute kidney injury requiring holding the
drug.
4. A client with neutropenia has a fever of 38.5°C. The nurse’s
priority action is:
Correct Answer: Obtain blood cultures and administer broad-
spectrum antibiotics
Rationale: Fever in neutropenia (absolute neutrophil count <500)
indicates possible sepsis. Antibiotics must be given within 1 hour
to prevent mortality.
5. Which chemotherapy drug requires a bladder-protecting
agent (mesna)?
Correct Answer: Cyclophosphamide
Rationale: Cyclophosphamide metabolite acrolein causes
hemorrhagic cystitis. Mesna binds acrolein in the bladder to
prevent bleeding.
6. A client with breast cancer on tamoxifen reports leg pain and
swelling. The nurse suspects:
Correct Answer: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
Rationale: Tamoxifen increases thromboembolic risk. Unilateral
leg pain/swelling requires urgent Doppler ultrasound.
2
,7. The most common early side effect of radiation therapy to the
head and neck is:
Correct Answer: Mucositis
Rationale: Rapidly dividing mucosal cells are damaged, causing
painful inflammation and ulceration within 2–3 weeks of starting
treatment.
8. A client with acute leukemia develops tumor lysis syndrome.
Which lab finding is expected?
Correct Answer: Hyperuricemia
Rationale: Rapid cell lysis releases uric acid, potassium,
phosphate. Hyperuricemia can cause acute kidney injury;
allopurinol/rasburicase are treatments.
9. Which assessment finding indicates superior vena cava
syndrome?
Correct Answer: Facial and upper extremity edema with
distended neck veins
Rationale: Tumor compression of SVC obstructs venous return
from head, neck, upper chest. This is an oncologic emergency.
10. A client receiving rituximab develops chills, fever, and
hypotension during infusion. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: Stop infusion and administer diphenhydramine
3
, and acetaminophen
Rationale: These are infusion-related reactions common with
monoclonal antibodies. Slow restart after symptom resolution.
11. The priority nursing intervention for a client with
thrombocytopenia (platelets 20,000) is:
Correct Answer: Implement bleeding precautions
Rationale: Risk of spontaneous bleeding. Avoid IM injections, use
soft toothbrush, electric razor; no rectal temps/suppositories.
12. Which finding in a client with multiple myeloma indicates
hypercalcemia?
Correct Answer: Lethargy, constipation, and confusion
Rationale: Bone destruction releases calcium. Symptoms: fatigue,
anorexia, polyuria, constipation, altered mental status.
13. A client with prostate cancer on leuprolide reports hot
flashes. The nurse explains this is due to:
Correct Answer: Androgen deprivation therapy causing
hormonal changes
Rationale: Leuprolide (GnRH agonist) reduces testosterone. Hot
flashes are a common expected side effect, not an allergic
reaction.
4
EXAM| NSE 211 MID-TERM EXAM REVIEW WITH
COMPLETE 250 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
ALREADY GRADED A+ (BRAND NEW!!)
1. A client with Hodgkin’s lymphoma reports painless
lymphadenopathy. The most common initial site is:
Correct Answer: C) Cervical nodes
Rationale: Hodgkin’s lymphoma typically presents with painless,
firm, rubbery lymphadenopathy in the cervical or supraclavicular
region. Mediastinal involvement occurs later, while axillary and
inguinal nodes are less common initially.
2. A client receiving chemotherapy reports nausea and vomiting
24 hours after treatment. This is classified as:
Correct Answer: Delayed emesis
Rationale: Delayed emesis occurs >24 hours after
chemotherapy, often days 2–5. Acute emesis happens within 24
hours; anticipatory occurs before treatment.
3. Which lab finding is most concerning in a client receiving
cisplatin?
Correct Answer: Serum creatinine 2.5 mg/dL
1
,Rationale: Cisplatin is nephrotoxic. Normal creatinine ~0.6–1.2
mg/dL; 2.5 indicates acute kidney injury requiring holding the
drug.
4. A client with neutropenia has a fever of 38.5°C. The nurse’s
priority action is:
Correct Answer: Obtain blood cultures and administer broad-
spectrum antibiotics
Rationale: Fever in neutropenia (absolute neutrophil count <500)
indicates possible sepsis. Antibiotics must be given within 1 hour
to prevent mortality.
5. Which chemotherapy drug requires a bladder-protecting
agent (mesna)?
Correct Answer: Cyclophosphamide
Rationale: Cyclophosphamide metabolite acrolein causes
hemorrhagic cystitis. Mesna binds acrolein in the bladder to
prevent bleeding.
6. A client with breast cancer on tamoxifen reports leg pain and
swelling. The nurse suspects:
Correct Answer: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
Rationale: Tamoxifen increases thromboembolic risk. Unilateral
leg pain/swelling requires urgent Doppler ultrasound.
2
,7. The most common early side effect of radiation therapy to the
head and neck is:
Correct Answer: Mucositis
Rationale: Rapidly dividing mucosal cells are damaged, causing
painful inflammation and ulceration within 2–3 weeks of starting
treatment.
8. A client with acute leukemia develops tumor lysis syndrome.
Which lab finding is expected?
Correct Answer: Hyperuricemia
Rationale: Rapid cell lysis releases uric acid, potassium,
phosphate. Hyperuricemia can cause acute kidney injury;
allopurinol/rasburicase are treatments.
9. Which assessment finding indicates superior vena cava
syndrome?
Correct Answer: Facial and upper extremity edema with
distended neck veins
Rationale: Tumor compression of SVC obstructs venous return
from head, neck, upper chest. This is an oncologic emergency.
10. A client receiving rituximab develops chills, fever, and
hypotension during infusion. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: Stop infusion and administer diphenhydramine
3
, and acetaminophen
Rationale: These are infusion-related reactions common with
monoclonal antibodies. Slow restart after symptom resolution.
11. The priority nursing intervention for a client with
thrombocytopenia (platelets 20,000) is:
Correct Answer: Implement bleeding precautions
Rationale: Risk of spontaneous bleeding. Avoid IM injections, use
soft toothbrush, electric razor; no rectal temps/suppositories.
12. Which finding in a client with multiple myeloma indicates
hypercalcemia?
Correct Answer: Lethargy, constipation, and confusion
Rationale: Bone destruction releases calcium. Symptoms: fatigue,
anorexia, polyuria, constipation, altered mental status.
13. A client with prostate cancer on leuprolide reports hot
flashes. The nurse explains this is due to:
Correct Answer: Androgen deprivation therapy causing
hormonal changes
Rationale: Leuprolide (GnRH agonist) reduces testosterone. Hot
flashes are a common expected side effect, not an allergic
reaction.
4
