NURS 5334 FINAL EXAM: ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY
COMPREHENSIVE TEST BANK WITH ANSWERS AND
RATIONALES
1. Prescribing of medications is primarily regulated by which entity?
A. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)
B. State Board of Nursing (BON)
C. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
D. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prescribing authority for nurse practitioners is regulated by
the state Board of Nursing, which defines scope of practice,
requirements, and limitations.
2. Which of the following is NOT required on a proper prescription?
A. Patient's date of birth
B. Drug strength
C. Patient's insurance information
D. Provider's DEA number
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Insurance information is not a legal requirement on a
prescription. Required elements include provider name/address/DEA,
patient name/DOB/address, drug name/strength, SIG, quantity, and
signature.
,3. Which drug schedule includes heroin, LSD, and marijuana?
A. Schedule I
B. Schedule II
C. Schedule III
D. Schedule IV
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Schedule I drugs have no accepted medical use and high
abuse potential. Heroin, LSD, and marijuana are classified as Schedule I.
4. Hydrocodone, oxycodone, and fentanyl belong to which drug
schedule?
A. Schedule I
B. Schedule II
C. Schedule III
D. Schedule IV
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Schedule II drugs have high abuse potential with severe
psychological or physical dependence. These opioids are all C-II.
5. Which drug schedule contains Xanax, Valium, and Ambien?
A. Schedule II
B. Schedule III
C. Schedule IV
D. Schedule V
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Benzodiazepines (Xanax, Valium) and zolpidem (Ambien) are
Schedule IV due to lower abuse potential than C-II and C-III.
6. Which of the following best defines pharmacodynamics?
A. What the body does to the drug
B. The study of genetic influences on drug response
C. The effects of the drug on the body
D. The movement of drug through the body
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pharmacodynamics refers to what the drug does to the body,
including receptor binding and physiological effects.
7. An agonist drug produces which effect?
A. Blocks receptor activation
B. Produces receptor stimulation and conformational change
C. Binds to receptors without causing activation
D. Reverses the effects of another drug
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Agonists bind to receptors and cause a conformational
change that produces a biological response.
8. A partial agonist differs from a full agonist in that a partial agonist:
A. Binds irreversibly to receptors
B. Stimulates only some of the receptors when bound
, C. Has no affinity for receptors
D. Requires all available receptors to produce a response
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Partial agonists bind to receptors but produce only
submaximal activation even when all receptors are occupied.
9. Which drug is an example of an antagonist?
A. Morphine
B. Naloxone
C. Albuterol
D. Lorazepam
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist that binds to mu
receptors without activating them, blocking opioid effects.
10. Bioavailability refers to:
A. The percentage of drug that reaches systemic circulation unchanged
B. The time required for drug concentration to decline by 50%
C. The movement of drug to target tissue
D. The chemical change of drug structure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bioavailability is the fraction of administered drug that
survives first-pass metabolism and reaches systemic circulation.
COMPREHENSIVE TEST BANK WITH ANSWERS AND
RATIONALES
1. Prescribing of medications is primarily regulated by which entity?
A. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)
B. State Board of Nursing (BON)
C. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
D. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prescribing authority for nurse practitioners is regulated by
the state Board of Nursing, which defines scope of practice,
requirements, and limitations.
2. Which of the following is NOT required on a proper prescription?
A. Patient's date of birth
B. Drug strength
C. Patient's insurance information
D. Provider's DEA number
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Insurance information is not a legal requirement on a
prescription. Required elements include provider name/address/DEA,
patient name/DOB/address, drug name/strength, SIG, quantity, and
signature.
,3. Which drug schedule includes heroin, LSD, and marijuana?
A. Schedule I
B. Schedule II
C. Schedule III
D. Schedule IV
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Schedule I drugs have no accepted medical use and high
abuse potential. Heroin, LSD, and marijuana are classified as Schedule I.
4. Hydrocodone, oxycodone, and fentanyl belong to which drug
schedule?
A. Schedule I
B. Schedule II
C. Schedule III
D. Schedule IV
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Schedule II drugs have high abuse potential with severe
psychological or physical dependence. These opioids are all C-II.
5. Which drug schedule contains Xanax, Valium, and Ambien?
A. Schedule II
B. Schedule III
C. Schedule IV
D. Schedule V
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Benzodiazepines (Xanax, Valium) and zolpidem (Ambien) are
Schedule IV due to lower abuse potential than C-II and C-III.
6. Which of the following best defines pharmacodynamics?
A. What the body does to the drug
B. The study of genetic influences on drug response
C. The effects of the drug on the body
D. The movement of drug through the body
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pharmacodynamics refers to what the drug does to the body,
including receptor binding and physiological effects.
7. An agonist drug produces which effect?
A. Blocks receptor activation
B. Produces receptor stimulation and conformational change
C. Binds to receptors without causing activation
D. Reverses the effects of another drug
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Agonists bind to receptors and cause a conformational
change that produces a biological response.
8. A partial agonist differs from a full agonist in that a partial agonist:
A. Binds irreversibly to receptors
B. Stimulates only some of the receptors when bound
, C. Has no affinity for receptors
D. Requires all available receptors to produce a response
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Partial agonists bind to receptors but produce only
submaximal activation even when all receptors are occupied.
9. Which drug is an example of an antagonist?
A. Morphine
B. Naloxone
C. Albuterol
D. Lorazepam
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist that binds to mu
receptors without activating them, blocking opioid effects.
10. Bioavailability refers to:
A. The percentage of drug that reaches systemic circulation unchanged
B. The time required for drug concentration to decline by 50%
C. The movement of drug to target tissue
D. The chemical change of drug structure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Bioavailability is the fraction of administered drug that
survives first-pass metabolism and reaches systemic circulation.
