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NU 189 / NU189 EXAM | Medical-Surgical Nursing II Review | Galen College | 100% Verified Q&A | Grade A | Pass Guaranteed

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Pass NU 189 Exam 2 on your first attempt with this comprehensive Medical-Surgical Nursing II review guide featuring 100% verified questions and answers for the update at Galen College! This Grade A resource for Medical-Surgical Nursing II (NU 189 / NU189) Exam 2 contains verified questions with correct answers covering all essential advanced med-surg nursing concepts. Featuring comprehensive coverage of oncology nursing (cancer pathophysiology (carcinogenesis, oncogenes, tumor suppressor genes), tumor classification (TNM staging, grade), cancer treatment modalities (surgery, radiation therapy (external beam, brachytherapy), chemotherapy (cell cycle‑specific vs non‑specific, side effects: myelosuppression, mucositis, alopecia, nausea, extravasation management), immunotherapy, targeted therapy, hormone therapy, stem cell transplant), oncologic emergencies (tumor lysis syndrome (TLS), superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS), spinal cord compression, hypercalcemia of malignancy, febrile neutropenia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)), hematologic disorders (leukemias (acute vs chronic, lymphocytic vs myeloid), lymphomas (Hodgkin vs non‑Hodgkin), multiple myeloma, bone marrow biopsy/aspiration, blood transfusion therapy (packed red blood cells, platelets, fresh frozen plasma, cryoprecipitate), transfusion reactions (acute hemolytic, febrile, allergic, bacterial contamination, transfusion‑related acute lung injury (TRALI), circulatory overload)), immunologic disorders (systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) (butterfly rash, arthritis, nephritis, serositis, hematologic), rheumatoid arthritis (joint deformity, rheumatoid nodules, extra‑articular manifestations), scleroderma (CREST syndrome), Sjögren's syndrome, HIV/AIDS (CD4 count, viral load, opportunistic infections (PCP, toxoplasmosis, MAC, CMV, candidiasis), antiretroviral therapy (ART)), hypersensitivity reactions (Type I‑IV), anaphylaxis management (epinephrine, airway, IV fluids)), transplant nursing (solid organ transplant (kidney, liver, heart, lung, pancreas), hematopoietic stem cell transplant (autologous, allogeneic), graft‑versus‑host disease (GVHD) (acute vs chronic), immunosuppressive therapy (calcineurin inhibitors (cyclosporine, tacrolimus), mTOR inhibitors (sirolimus, everolimus), antimetabolites (mycophenolate mofetil, azathioprine), corticosteroids), rejection (hyperacute, acute, chronic), infection prevention in immunocompromised patients), hepatobiliary and pancreatic disorders (hepatitis (A, B, C, D, E) (transmission, prevention, treatment), cirrhosis (compensated vs decompensated), portal hypertension (esophageal varices (band ligation, sclerotherapy), ascites (paracentesis), splenomegaly), hepatic encephalopathy (lactulose, rifaximin), liver failure (MELD score, transplant), acute pancreatitis (Ranson's criteria, Atlanta classification, fluid resuscitation, pain management, nutrition), chronic pancreatitis, pancreatic cancer (Whipple procedure), cholelithiasis, cholecystitis (laparoscopic cholecystectomy, ERCP)), genitourinary disorders (benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) (alpha‑blockers (tamsulosin), 5‑alpha‑reductase inhibitors (finasteride), TURP), prostate cancer (PSA, digital rectal exam (DRE), biopsy, treatment (active surveillance, prostatectomy, radiation, hormone therapy)), bladder cancer, renal cell carcinoma, testicular cancer, erectile dysfunction, urinary incontinence (stress, urge, overflow, functional), neurogenic bladder), skin and wound care (pressure injury staging (Stage 1‑4, unstageable, deep tissue injury), wound assessment (size, depth, exudate, tissue type, periwound, signs of infection), wound care products (alginate, foam, hydrocolloid, hydrogel, transparent film, antimicrobial dressings (silver, iodine, honey)), negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT/VAC), surgical wounds (dehiscence, evisceration), burns (depth classification, Rule of Nines, Parkland formula, phases of burn care (emergent, acute, rehabilitative)), infectious diseases (sepsis (SIRS criteria, qSOFA, Sepsis‑3 definitions), septic shock (vasopressors, fluid resuscitation, antibiotics within 1 hour), healthcare‑associated infections (HAIs) (CLABSI, CAUTI, VAP, SSI), antimicrobial stewardship, isolation precautions (contact, droplet, airborne)), emergency and disaster nursing (triage (START, SALT), disaster preparedness (incident command system (ICS), NIMS), mass casualty incidents (MCI), chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear (CBRN) agents), leadership and management (delegation (five rights), prioritization (Maslow's hierarchy, ABCs, acute vs chronic, actual vs potential), time management, conflict resolution, quality improvement (PDSA, root cause analysis), patient safety (National Patient Safety Goals (NPSGs)), evidence‑based practice (EBP)), ethical and legal issues (informed consent, advance directives (living will, durable power of attorney for healthcare), DNR/DNI orders, capacity vs competence, confidentiality (HIPAA), mandatory reporting (child/elder abuse, communicable diseases, gunshot wounds), professional boundaries), end‑of‑life care (palliative vs hospice care, pain and symptom management, advance care planning, family support, bereavement, cultural considerations, ethical dilemmas (euthanasia, assisted suicide, withdrawal of life support)). With detailed rationales, clinical case scenarios, NCLEX‑style questions, and our Pass Guarantee, this is the definitive tool for Galen College nursing students seeking a top score on NU 189 Exam 2. Download now and excel in your Medical‑Surgical Nursing II course with confidence!

Meer zien Lees minder
Instelling
NU 189 / NU189
Vak
NU 189 / NU189

Voorbeeld van de inhoud

​NU 189 / NU189 EXAM 2​
​2026-2027 |​
​Medical-Surgical Nursing II​
​Review | Galen College |​
​100% Verified Q&A | Grade A |​
​Pass Guaranteed​
​## **PART A: MULTIPLE CHOICE (Q1–55)**​

*​ *Q1 (Endocrine – DKA):** A 22-year-old female with type 1 diabetes presents with nausea,​
​vomiting, deep rapid breathing (Kussmaul), and a blood glucose of 480 mg/dL. Labs: pH 7.20,​
​HCO3 10, anion gap 22, positive serum ketones. Which IV fluid should be administered first?​
​A. 0.45% NaCl with 5% dextrose​
​B. 0.9% NaCl (normal saline)​
​C. 3% NaCl​
​D. Dextrose 5% in 0.45% NaCl with insulin​

*​ *[CORRECT]** B​
​*Rationale: Initial fluid resuscitation in DKA is 0.9% NaCl (normal saline) to restore intravascular​
​volume and correct hyperosmolality. 0.45% NaCl with dextrose (A) is used later when glucose​
​falls to ~250 mg/dL to prevent hypoglycemia while continuing insulin. 3% NaCl (C) is reserved​
​for severe symptomatic hyponatremia. Dextrose (D) is not added initially. Test tip: First = NS;​
​second = add D5 when glucose hits 250 mg/dL per ADA 2026 guidelines.*​

​---​

*​ *Q2 (Endocrine – Hypoglycemia):** A 68-year-old with type 2 diabetes on glipizide becomes​
​confused, diaphoretic, and shaky. Blood glucose is 52 mg/dL. The patient is alert enough to​
​swallow. What is the nurse's priority action?​
​A. Administer 1 mg glucagon IM​

,​ . Give 15 g fast-acting carbohydrate​
B
​C. Start D5W IV at 125 mL/hr​
​D. Hold the next dose of glipizide and notify provider​

*​ *[CORRECT]** B​
​*Rationale: The "Rule of 15" states giving 15 g fast-acting carbohydrate (glucose tablets, juice,​
​regular soda) for conscious patients with blood glucose <70 mg/dL. Glucagon (A) is for​
​unconscious or NPO patients. IV dextrose (C) is unnecessary if the patient can swallow. Holding​
​medication (D) is appropriate but not the priority over treating the current hypoglycemia. Clinical​
​pearl: Recheck glucose in 15 minutes and retreat if still <70.*​

​---​

*​ *Q3 (Endocrine – Insulin Types):** A patient with type 1 diabetes needs basal insulin coverage​
​overnight and rapid-acting insulin for mealtime coverage. Which regimen best matches this​
​need?​
​A. NPH insulin twice daily only​
​B. Insulin glargine (Lantus) once daily + insulin lispro (Humalog) with meals​
​C. Regular insulin (Humulin R) three times daily before meals​
​D. Insulin detemir (Levemir) once daily only​

*​ *[CORRECT]** B​
​*Rationale: Basal-bolus therapy uses long-acting insulin (glargine, detemir, degludec) for basal​
​coverage and rapid-acting insulin (lispro, aspart, glulisine) for prandial coverage. NPH (A) is​
​intermediate-acting with peak effects and hypoglycemia risk. Regular insulin (C) is short-acting,​
​not rapid-acting. Detemir alone (D) provides no mealtime coverage. ADA 2026 recommends​
​basal-bolus or pump therapy for type 1 diabetes.*​

​---​

*​ *Q4 (Endocrine – SGLT2 Inhibitors):** A patient with type 2 diabetes and heart failure with​
​reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) is prescribed empagliflozin (Jardiance). Which teaching point​
​is most important for the nurse to include?​
​A. "Take this medication 30 minutes before meals for best absorption."​
​B. "You may notice increased urination and a higher risk of genital yeast infections."​
​C. "If you miss a dose, double the next dose to maintain blood sugar control."​
​D. "This medication will completely replace your need for insulin."​

*​ *[CORRECT]** B​
​*Rationale: SGLT2 inhibitors increase urinary glucose excretion, causing osmotic diuresis​
​(increased urination) and creating a favorable environment for genital mycotic infections. They​
​are taken once daily regardless of meals (A is wrong). Never double doses (C). They are​
​adjunctive therapy, not a replacement for insulin in type 1 diabetes or advanced type 2 (D).​
​ADA/AHA 2026: SGLT2 inhibitors have proven cardiovascular and renal benefits in HFrEF.*​

,​---​

*​ *Q5 (Endocrine – Thyroid – Hyperthyroidism):** A 32-year-old with Graves' disease is​
​prescribed methimazole. Which assessment finding indicates the medication is effective?​
​A. Weight gain of 5 lb in one week​
​B. Decreased heart rate from 110 to 78 bpm​
​C. Development of exophthalmos​
​D. Increased heat intolerance​

*​ *[CORRECT]** B​
​*Rationale: Methimazole blocks thyroid hormone synthesis. A decreased heart rate indicates​
​reduced thyroid hormone effect on the cardiovascular system. Weight gain (A) may occur but 5​
​lb in one week suggests fluid retention, not therapeutic effect. Exophthalmos (C) is an​
​autoimmune manifestation not reversed by antithyroid drugs. Increased heat intolerance (D)​
​indicates worsening hyperthyroidism. Monitor for agranulocytosis (fever, sore throat) with​
​methimazole.*​

​---​

*​ *Q6 (Endocrine – Thyroid – Hypothyroidism):** A patient with newly diagnosed hypothyroidism​
​is started on levothyroxine. Which instruction is most important?​
​A. "Take the medication with your morning coffee and breakfast."​
​B. "Take on an empty stomach 30–60 minutes before breakfast with water."​
​C. "Take at bedtime with a high-fiber snack."​
​D. "Crush the tablet and mix with applesauce if you have trouble swallowing."​

*​ *[CORRECT]** B​
​*Rationale: Levothyroxine absorption is impaired by food, coffee, calcium, iron, and fiber. It must​
​be taken on an empty stomach with water, 30–60 minutes before breakfast or 3–4 hours after​
​the last meal. Coffee and breakfast (A) reduce absorption. High-fiber snacks (C) decrease​
​absorption. Levothyroxine tablets should not be crushed (D); use liquid formulation if needed.​
​TSH should be rechecked in 6–8 weeks.*​

​---​

*​ *Q7 (Endocrine – Addison's Disease):** A patient with Addison's disease presents with​
​confusion, severe hypotension (82/48 mmHg), hyperkalemia (6.2 mEq/L), and hyponatremia​
​(128 mEq/L). What is the priority nursing intervention?​
​A. Administer IV hydrocortisone and 0.9% NaCl immediately​
​B. Start potassium-wasting diuretics​
​C. Administer levothyroxine IV push​
​D. Give oral fludrocortisone and monitor for 24 hours​

, *​ *[CORRECT]** A​
​*Rationale: This patient is in Addisonian crisis (acute adrenal insufficiency) requiring immediate​
​IV hydrocortisone (glucocorticoid replacement) and isotonic saline for volume resuscitation.​
​Diuretics (B) worsen hypotension. Levothyroxine (C) treats hypothyroidism, not adrenal crisis.​
​Oral medications (D) are inappropriate in hemodynamic instability. Addison's disease causes​
​hyperpigmentation, hypotension, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia due to aldosterone​
​deficiency.*​

​---​

*​ *Q8 (Endocrine – Cushing's Syndrome):** A patient with Cushing's syndrome is at highest risk​
​for which complication?​
​A. Hypoglycemia and weight loss​
​B. Hyperglycemia, hypertension, and osteoporosis​
​C. Bradycardia and hypothermia​
​D. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia​

*​ *[CORRECT]** B​
​*Rationale: Cushing's syndrome (cortisol excess) causes hyperglycemia (gluconeogenesis),​
​hypertension (sodium/water retention), and osteoporosis (bone resorption). Weight gain (not​
​loss) and tachycardia (not bradycardia) are typical. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia (D) occur in​
​Addison's disease, not Cushing's. Nursing priorities include glucose monitoring, blood pressure​
​management, fall prevention, and infection surveillance.*​

​---​

*​ *Q9 (Endocrine – HHS):** A 78-year-old with type 2 diabetes is admitted with HHS. Blood​
​glucose is 920 mg/dL, serum osmolality 340 mOsm/kg, pH 7.35, and absent ketones. Which​
​statement about management is correct?​
​A. An insulin drip should be started before fluid resuscitation​
​B. 0.9% NaCl is the initial fluid of choice, with insulin started after volume expansion​
​C. DKA and HHS are managed identically with the same fluid protocols​
​D. Potassium replacement should begin before any fluids are administered​

*​ *[CORRECT]** B​
​*Rationale: HHS management prioritizes aggressive fluid resuscitation with 0.9% NaCl first;​
​insulin is started after initial volume expansion because rapid insulin without fluids can worsen​
​hypotension. DKA and HHS differ: HHS has no ketosis, higher glucose/osmolality, and typically​
​requires more fluid replacement. Potassium (D) is monitored and replaced based on levels but​
​not before fluids. Test tip: HHS = more fluid, less insulin urgency than DKA.*​

​---​

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