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NUR 155 EXAM 2 EXAM ACTUAL 2026/2027 ACCURATE TEST COMPLETE APPROVED QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (100% CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS) NEWEST UPDATED VERSION 2026 EDITION |ALREADY GRADED A+ (BRAND NEW!) |FULL REVISED NUR 155 E

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NUR 155 EXAM 2 EXAM ACTUAL 2026/2027 ACCURATE TEST COMPLETE APPROVED QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (100% CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS) NEWEST UPDATED VERSION 2026 EDITION |ALREADY GRADED A+ (BRAND NEW!) |FULL REVISED NUR 155 EXAM 2 FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING (ELECTROLYTES, NUTRITION, ELIMINATION)

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NUR 155 EXAM 2 EXAM ACTUAL 2026/2027 ACCURATE TEST
COMPLETE APPROVED QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (100% CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS) NEWEST UPDATED VERSION 2026 EDITION |ALREADY
GRADED A+ (BRAND NEW!) |FULL REVISED NUR 155 EXAM 2
FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING (ELECTROLYTES, NUTRITION,
ELIMINATION)


1. A client’s serum potassium level is 2.9 me/L. Which assessment finding requires
the nurse’s immediate action?
A. Abdominal distension
B. Respiratory muscle weakness
C. Hypoactive bowel sounds
D. Fatigue with ambulation


Correct Answer: B – Respiratory muscle weakness
Rationale: A potassium level of 2.9 me/L indicates hypokalemia. Severe
hypokalemia can lead to respiratory muscle weakness or paralysis due to impaired
neuromuscular function. This is the most life-threatening complication and
requires immediate intervention. Abdominal distension and hypoactive bowel
sounds are expected but not immediately life-threatening.


2. A client with chronic kidney disease has a serum magnesium level of 3.5 mg/ld.
Which finding does the nurse expect?
A. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
B. Muscle cramps and tetany
C. Bradycardia and hypotension
D. Diarrhea and abdominal cramping

,Correct Answer: C – Bradycardia and hypotension
Rationale: Normal magnesium is 1.5–2.5 mg/ld.; 3.5 mg/ld. indicates
hypomagnesemia. Hypomagnesemia causes bradycardia, hypotension, weak
reflexes, and respiratory depression. Hyperreflexia (not hyperactive) is expected.
Tetany and muscle cramps occur in hypomagnesemia or hypocalcemia.


3. The nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client with hypocalcemia. Which
food choice by the client indicates understanding?
A. Canned tuna with crackers
B. Broccoli and almond milk smoothie
C. Apple slices with peanut butter
D. White rice and steamed carrots


Correct Answer: B – Broccoli and almond milk smoothie
Rationale: Hypocalcemia requires increased dietary calcium. Broccoli and fortified
almond milk are calcium-rich. Canned tuna, apples, peanut butter, white rice, and
carrots are not significant calcium sources. Other calcium-rich foods include dairy,
kale, sardines, and tofu.


4. A client’s serum sodium is 120 me/L. Which intervention should the nurse
prioritize?
A. Restrict oral fluids to 1 L per day
B. Administer 3% saline as prescribed
C. Encourage intake of broth and crackers
D. Place client on seizure precautions


Correct Answer: D – Place client on seizure precautions

,Rationale: Sodium 120 me/L is severe hyponatremia. Rapid neurological
deterioration, including seizures and cerebral edema, is a high risk. Seizure
precautions (padded side rails, suction, airway equipment) are the priority before
any other intervention. 3% saline may be prescribed but only in severe
symptomatic cases; seizure safety comes first.


5. Which client is at highest risk for hypernatremia?
A. A client with heart failure taking furosemide daily
B. An older adult with dementia who refuses to drink water
C. A postoperative client receiving 0.45% saline IV
D. A client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)


Correct Answer: B – An older adult with dementia who refuses to drink water
Rationale: Hypernatremia is caused by water deficit. Older adults with decreased
thirst perception or inability to access water are at high risk. Furosemide and
SIADH cause hyponatremia. 0.45% saline is hypotonic and treats hypernatremia,
not causes it.


6. The nurse reviews a client’s laboratory results: calcium 7.8 mg/ld., phosphorus
4.8 mg/ld. Which physical assessment finding correlates?
A. Positive Chvostek’s sign
B. Bone pain and fractures
C. Trousseau’s sign negative
D. Hyperactive bowel sounds


Correct Answer: A – Positive Chvostek’s sign
Rationale: Calcium 7.8 mg/ld. (low) and phosphorus 4.8 mg/ld. (high) suggest
hypocalcemia. Positive Chvostek’s (facial twitching when tapping facial nerve)

, and Trousseau’s signs are classic for hypocalcemia. Hypocalcemia decreases
neuromuscular excitability threshold, causing tetany.


7. A client receiving tube feeding develops diarrhea, abdominal cramping, and a
serum potassium of 2.8 me/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Slow the tube feeding infusion rate
B. Administer oral potassium supplement
C. Check the tube feeding for bacterial contamination
D. Change the tube feeding to a fiber-enriched formula


Correct Answer: C – Check the tube feeding for bacterial contamination
Rationale: Sudden diarrhea with hypokalemia in tube-fed clients can indicate
bacterial contamination of formula. Contaminated formula causes osmotic
diarrhea, leading to potassium loss. Checking contamination precedes changing
formula or slowing rate. Oral potassium should not be given if diarrhea continues.


8. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with metabolic
alkalosis?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hyponatremia


Correct Answer: B – Hypokalemia
Rationale: Metabolic alkalosis often occurs with hypokalemia due to hydrogen ion
shifts, vomiting, or diuretic use. The kidneys excrete potassium to retain hydrogen
ions, worsening alkalosis. Hypokalemia also impairs acid excretion. Correcting
potassium helps correct alkalosis.

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