NR 603 Week 2 Quiz
Chamberlain Nursing • 2026 Edition
Chamberlain Nursing • 2026 Edition
Full Questions, Answers and Rationales | Graded A+
EXAM DETAILS STUDY INSTRUCTIONS
Questions: 100+ NGN-Style • Read each question carefully before
Format: Multiple Choice answering
Level: RN / Advanced Practice (NR 603) • Review all rationales after each block
• Focus on priority & safety concepts
Question 1
During a follow-up visit one week after a spontaneous abortion, which of the
following physical exam findings would most likely indicate normal uterine
involution and absence of infection?
• A. Abdomen is distended and tympanic on percussion
• B. Uterus is not palpable on bimanual exam; cervix is open
• C. Uterus is enlarged, boggy, and tender with malodorous vaginal discharge
• D. Uterus is firm, non-tender, and at or just below the pubic symphysis ✓
CORRECT
▸ Rationale: Normal uterine involution after spontaneous abortion includes the uterus
returning to its non-pregnant size, remaining firm, and non-tender. An open cervix,
boggy/tender uterus, or malodorous discharge suggests retained products or
infection. | Concept: Women's Health / Post-Abortion Care
Question 2
During a patient interview, the provider asks, "How have you been coping
emotionally since the event?" The patient responds, "It's been really tough
emotionally. I've been feeling very sad and overwhelmed, and sometimes it's hard
to get through the day." Which of the following is the most appropriate next
response by the provider?
• A. "That sounds really difficult. Can you tell me more about what your days
have been like?" ✓ CORRECT
,• B. "It's probably just temporary sadness. You'll be fine with rest."
• C. "Let's move on to your medical history now."
• D. "You should really try to be more positive. Things will get better soon."
▸ Rationale: Validating the patient's emotions and using an open-ended question
encourages further exploration of feelings and supports therapeutic communication. |
Concept: Therapeutic Communication / Emotional Support
Question 3
A 35-year-old patient presents with mild tingling in the right lower extremity but
has normal strength, coordination, reflexes, and gait. Which of the following is the
MOST appropriate next step in management?
• A. Follow up with the primary care provider in 6 months
• B. Begin opioid therapy and refer to pain management
• C. Refer to physical therapy within 1–2 weeks ✓ CORRECT
• D. Refer to an orthopedic surgeon within 1 week
▸ Rationale: Mild symptoms without neurological deficits are often managed
conservatively with physical therapy. | Concept: Neurology / Conservative Management
Question 4
A patient presents with pain and tingling in the right lower extremity. MRI
confirms an L4–L5 disc bulge with nerve root impingement, consistent with
lumbosacral radiculopathy. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next
step in this patient's management?
• A.Immediate referral to neurosurgery for surgical intervention
• B.Discharge without follow-up as the symptoms are expected to resolve
spontaneously
• C.Prescribe high-dose opioids and recommend strict bed rest
• D.Initiate physical therapy and reassess in 4–6 weeks ✓ CORRECT
▸ Rationale: For acute radiculopathy without progressive neurological deficits,
conservative management with physical therapy is first-line. | Concept: Orthopedics /
Radiculopathy Management
,Question 5
Why is it important to include a breast and thyroid exam during the physical
assessment following a spontaneous abortion?
• A.To screen for breast cancer and thyroid nodules
• B.To determine if thyroid dysfunction resulted in early pregnancy loss
• C.To evaluate risk for future spontaneous abortion
• D.To assess for milk production and hyperprolactinemia that can delay
emotional recovery ✓ CORRECT
▸ Rationale: After pregnancy loss, elevated prolactin levels can persist, leading to milk
production and potential emotional distress. | Concept: Women's Health / Post-Abortion
Assessment
Question 6
A 28-year-old female presents to the clinic 2 weeks after a spontaneous abortion.
She reports continued heavy bleeding, pelvic pain, and a low-grade fever. On
bimanual exam, the cervix is open and the uterus is tender and enlarged. Which of
the following is the most likely diagnosis?
• A.Normal post-abortion involution
• B.Endometriosis
• C.Retained products of conception with endometritis ✓ CORRECT
• D.Ovarian cyst rupture
▸ Rationale: Continued bleeding, fever, pelvic pain, open cervix, and tender/enlarged
uterus are classic signs of retained products of conception complicated by
endometritis. | Concept: Women's Health / Post-Abortion Complications
Question 7
A patient with lumbosacral radiculopathy has been undergoing physical therapy
for 5 weeks but reports worsening pain and new-onset foot drop. Which of the
following is the most appropriate next step?
• A.Continue physical therapy for another 4 weeks
• B.Prescribe a higher dose of NSAIDs
• C.Refer to neurosurgery for surgical evaluation ✓ CORRECT
• D.Order a repeat MRI in 3 months
, ▸ Rationale: Worsening symptoms and new motor deficit (foot drop) after conservative
management indicate the need for surgical evaluation. | Concept: Neurology / Surgical
Referral
Question 8
During a follow-up visit after spontaneous abortion, the patient appears tearful
and states, "I feel like I failed. I don't know if I can try again." Which of the
following responses by the provider is most appropriate?
• A."You shouldn't blame yourself. Many women have miscarriages."
• B."Let's focus on the physical recovery first."
• C."It sounds like you're feeling a lot of guilt. Can you tell me more about that?"
✓ CORRECT
• D."You should see a therapist for these feelings."
▸ Rationale: Validating the patient's feelings and using an open-ended question allows
exploration of guilt and emotional distress. | Concept: Mental Health / Grief Counseling
Question 9
A 45-year-old patient presents with low back pain radiating to the left leg,
numbness in the left foot, and difficulty walking. MRI reveals a large central disc
herniation at L4-L5. Which of the following findings would require immediate
surgical referral?
• A.Mild lower extremity weakness (4/5 strength)
• B.Acute urinary retention and saddle anesthesia ✓ CORRECT
• C.Pain that worsens with coughing or sneezing
• D.Positive straight leg raise test
▸ Rationale: Acute urinary retention and saddle anesthesia are signs of cauda equina
syndrome, a neurosurgical emergency. | Concept: Emergency / Cauda Equina Syndrome
Question 10
A patient is 1 week post-spontaneous abortion and reports no bleeding, no fever,
and mild lower abdominal cramping. On exam, the cervix is closed and the uterus
is non-tender and non-palpable. Which of the following is the most appropriate
next step?
• A.Schedule a dilation and curettage (D&C)
• B.Prescribe prophylactic antibiotics
Chamberlain Nursing • 2026 Edition
Chamberlain Nursing • 2026 Edition
Full Questions, Answers and Rationales | Graded A+
EXAM DETAILS STUDY INSTRUCTIONS
Questions: 100+ NGN-Style • Read each question carefully before
Format: Multiple Choice answering
Level: RN / Advanced Practice (NR 603) • Review all rationales after each block
• Focus on priority & safety concepts
Question 1
During a follow-up visit one week after a spontaneous abortion, which of the
following physical exam findings would most likely indicate normal uterine
involution and absence of infection?
• A. Abdomen is distended and tympanic on percussion
• B. Uterus is not palpable on bimanual exam; cervix is open
• C. Uterus is enlarged, boggy, and tender with malodorous vaginal discharge
• D. Uterus is firm, non-tender, and at or just below the pubic symphysis ✓
CORRECT
▸ Rationale: Normal uterine involution after spontaneous abortion includes the uterus
returning to its non-pregnant size, remaining firm, and non-tender. An open cervix,
boggy/tender uterus, or malodorous discharge suggests retained products or
infection. | Concept: Women's Health / Post-Abortion Care
Question 2
During a patient interview, the provider asks, "How have you been coping
emotionally since the event?" The patient responds, "It's been really tough
emotionally. I've been feeling very sad and overwhelmed, and sometimes it's hard
to get through the day." Which of the following is the most appropriate next
response by the provider?
• A. "That sounds really difficult. Can you tell me more about what your days
have been like?" ✓ CORRECT
,• B. "It's probably just temporary sadness. You'll be fine with rest."
• C. "Let's move on to your medical history now."
• D. "You should really try to be more positive. Things will get better soon."
▸ Rationale: Validating the patient's emotions and using an open-ended question
encourages further exploration of feelings and supports therapeutic communication. |
Concept: Therapeutic Communication / Emotional Support
Question 3
A 35-year-old patient presents with mild tingling in the right lower extremity but
has normal strength, coordination, reflexes, and gait. Which of the following is the
MOST appropriate next step in management?
• A. Follow up with the primary care provider in 6 months
• B. Begin opioid therapy and refer to pain management
• C. Refer to physical therapy within 1–2 weeks ✓ CORRECT
• D. Refer to an orthopedic surgeon within 1 week
▸ Rationale: Mild symptoms without neurological deficits are often managed
conservatively with physical therapy. | Concept: Neurology / Conservative Management
Question 4
A patient presents with pain and tingling in the right lower extremity. MRI
confirms an L4–L5 disc bulge with nerve root impingement, consistent with
lumbosacral radiculopathy. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next
step in this patient's management?
• A.Immediate referral to neurosurgery for surgical intervention
• B.Discharge without follow-up as the symptoms are expected to resolve
spontaneously
• C.Prescribe high-dose opioids and recommend strict bed rest
• D.Initiate physical therapy and reassess in 4–6 weeks ✓ CORRECT
▸ Rationale: For acute radiculopathy without progressive neurological deficits,
conservative management with physical therapy is first-line. | Concept: Orthopedics /
Radiculopathy Management
,Question 5
Why is it important to include a breast and thyroid exam during the physical
assessment following a spontaneous abortion?
• A.To screen for breast cancer and thyroid nodules
• B.To determine if thyroid dysfunction resulted in early pregnancy loss
• C.To evaluate risk for future spontaneous abortion
• D.To assess for milk production and hyperprolactinemia that can delay
emotional recovery ✓ CORRECT
▸ Rationale: After pregnancy loss, elevated prolactin levels can persist, leading to milk
production and potential emotional distress. | Concept: Women's Health / Post-Abortion
Assessment
Question 6
A 28-year-old female presents to the clinic 2 weeks after a spontaneous abortion.
She reports continued heavy bleeding, pelvic pain, and a low-grade fever. On
bimanual exam, the cervix is open and the uterus is tender and enlarged. Which of
the following is the most likely diagnosis?
• A.Normal post-abortion involution
• B.Endometriosis
• C.Retained products of conception with endometritis ✓ CORRECT
• D.Ovarian cyst rupture
▸ Rationale: Continued bleeding, fever, pelvic pain, open cervix, and tender/enlarged
uterus are classic signs of retained products of conception complicated by
endometritis. | Concept: Women's Health / Post-Abortion Complications
Question 7
A patient with lumbosacral radiculopathy has been undergoing physical therapy
for 5 weeks but reports worsening pain and new-onset foot drop. Which of the
following is the most appropriate next step?
• A.Continue physical therapy for another 4 weeks
• B.Prescribe a higher dose of NSAIDs
• C.Refer to neurosurgery for surgical evaluation ✓ CORRECT
• D.Order a repeat MRI in 3 months
, ▸ Rationale: Worsening symptoms and new motor deficit (foot drop) after conservative
management indicate the need for surgical evaluation. | Concept: Neurology / Surgical
Referral
Question 8
During a follow-up visit after spontaneous abortion, the patient appears tearful
and states, "I feel like I failed. I don't know if I can try again." Which of the
following responses by the provider is most appropriate?
• A."You shouldn't blame yourself. Many women have miscarriages."
• B."Let's focus on the physical recovery first."
• C."It sounds like you're feeling a lot of guilt. Can you tell me more about that?"
✓ CORRECT
• D."You should see a therapist for these feelings."
▸ Rationale: Validating the patient's feelings and using an open-ended question allows
exploration of guilt and emotional distress. | Concept: Mental Health / Grief Counseling
Question 9
A 45-year-old patient presents with low back pain radiating to the left leg,
numbness in the left foot, and difficulty walking. MRI reveals a large central disc
herniation at L4-L5. Which of the following findings would require immediate
surgical referral?
• A.Mild lower extremity weakness (4/5 strength)
• B.Acute urinary retention and saddle anesthesia ✓ CORRECT
• C.Pain that worsens with coughing or sneezing
• D.Positive straight leg raise test
▸ Rationale: Acute urinary retention and saddle anesthesia are signs of cauda equina
syndrome, a neurosurgical emergency. | Concept: Emergency / Cauda Equina Syndrome
Question 10
A patient is 1 week post-spontaneous abortion and reports no bleeding, no fever,
and mild lower abdominal cramping. On exam, the cervix is closed and the uterus
is non-tender and non-palpable. Which of the following is the most appropriate
next step?
• A.Schedule a dilation and curettage (D&C)
• B.Prescribe prophylactic antibiotics
