CNT Written Exam
Official Practice Exam -- 2026/2027 Edition
Updated Questions with Complete Answers -- Verified & A+ Graded
Questions: 100 | Minutes: 90 | Passing Score: 80% | Sections: 5
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Section 1: Neuroanatomy & Neurophysiology 25 Questions (Q1-Q25)
Section 2: EEG Technology & Instrumentation 25 Questions (Q26-Q50)
Section 3: EEG Recording & Measurement 20 Questions (Q51-Q70)
Section 4: Polysomnography & Long-Term Monitoring 15 Questions (Q71-Q85)
Section 5: Professional Standards & Patient Care 15 Questions (Q86-Q100)
INSTRUCTIONS
This practice exam contains 100 multiple-choice questions divided into 5 sections. Each question has 4 answer
choices (A through D). Select the single best answer for each question. You have 90 minutes to complete the
exam. A passing score of 80% (80 out of 100 correct) is required. Each question provides a rationale explaining
the correct answer and why the most common wrong answer is incorrect. Review these rationales carefully to
strengthen your understanding of key CNT concepts.
Good luck on your CNT Written Exam!
CNT Written Exam -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 1 of 52
, Section 1: Neuroanatomy & Neurophysiology
Q1 Question 1 of 100
A 34-year-old patient presents with left-sided weakness following a stroke. Imaging reveals an infarct
in the territory of the right middle cerebral artery. The precentral gyrus in this region is primarily
responsible for motor function of the contralateral body. This gyrus is classified as part of the frontal
lobe and corresponds to Brodmann area 4.
A) Brodmann area 17
B) Brodmann area 3
C) Brodmann area 4
D) Brodmann area 22
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
The precentral gyrus is the primary motor cortex corresponding to Brodmann area 4. Area 3 is the primary
somatosensory cortex in the postcentral gyrus, and areas 17 and 22 are visual and auditory association cortices
respectively.
Q2 Question 2 of 100
During an EEG recording, a technologist notes that the thalamocortical projections are generating
rhythmic alpha activity in a relaxed adult patient. The specific thalamic nucleus that serves as the
primary pacemaker for these rhythmic oscillations to the cortex is the nucleus reticularis thalami,
which generates rhythmic inhibitory outputs that pace thalamocortical relay neurons.
A) Nucleus reticularis thalami
B) Centromedian nucleus
C) Medial dorsal nucleus
D) Ventroanterior nucleus
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
The nucleus reticularis thalami acts as a pacemaker for alpha rhythms by generating rhythmic inhibitory outputs. The
ventroanterior nucleus is a motor relay, the medial dorsal nucleus is an association relay, and the centromedian
nucleus is involved in arousal.
CNT Written Exam -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2 of 52
, Q3 Question 3 of 100
A neurologist evaluates a 52-year-old patient with gait instability and finds degeneration of the
Purkinje cell layer on biopsy. The cerebellar structure where these cells are exclusively located
coordinates motor learning and fine movement. Damage to this structure results in ipsilateral deficits,
and the cerebellum receives input via the pontocerebellar and olivocerebellar tracts.
A) Cerebellar cortex
B) Basal ganglia
C) Motor cortex
D) Red nucleus
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Purkinje cells are found exclusively in the cerebellar cortex and are its sole output neurons. The basal ganglia and
motor cortex do not contain Purkinje cells, and the red nucleus is a midbrain structure involved in motor coordination
but not the site of these cells.
Q4 Question 4 of 100
A 45-year-old woman presents with visual field deficits after a posterior cerebral artery infarct. The
primary visual cortex receives input via the optic radiations and is located along the calcarine sulcus.
This cortical area processes visual information from the contralateral visual field and corresponds to
Brodmann area 17, also known as V1 or striate cortex.
A) Brodmann area 17
B) Brodmann area 18
C) Brodmann area 19
D) Brodmann area 7
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
The primary visual cortex is Brodmann area 17 along the calcarine sulcus. Area 18 is V2, area 19 is V3/V4, and area 7
is in the parietal lobe. The question describes the primary visual cortex which is area 17.
CNT Written Exam -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3 of 52
, Q5 Question 5 of 100
A patient with intractable epilepsy undergoes a Wada test to determine language dominance. The
internal carotid artery is injected with sodium amobarbital on the left side, producing transient aphasia.
This finding indicates left hemisphere language dominance, which occurs in approximately 95% of
right-handed individuals and approximately 70% of left-handed individuals.
A) Cerebellar language dominance
B) Right hemisphere language dominance
C) Bilateral language dominance
D) Left hemisphere language dominance
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Left internal carotid injection causing aphasia confirms left hemisphere language dominance. Right hemisphere
dominance occurs in only about 5% of right-handed people. Bilateral and cerebellar language organization are not
standard patterns.
Q6 Question 6 of 100
A 28-year-old patient suffers a traumatic brain injury affecting the limbic system. The hippocampus,
critical for forming new declarative memories, is located in the medial temporal lobe and receives
input from the entorhinal cortex. Bilateral damage to this structure produces profound anterograde
amnesia as famously demonstrated in patient H.M.
A) Hippocampus
B) Mammillary bodies
C) Cingulate gyrus
D) Amygdala
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
The hippocampus is the primary structure for forming new declarative memories. The amygdala processes emotions,
the cingulate gyrus is involved in attention and emotion regulation, and the mammillary bodies are part of the Papez
circuit but not the primary site for new memory formation.
CNT Written Exam -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 4 of 52